Pratidin

UPSC current affairs quiz, 2 October 2026

30 Prelims-style questions on the day's news, in the formats UPSC uses (statement-based, How many, Statement-I and II), each with the answer and an explanation. Try each one before you open the answer.

Read 2 October 2026 first1 October 2026 quiz3 October 2026 quizTimed test in the app

Supreme Court orders curbs on vehicle services until unpaid e-challans are cleared

  1. With reference to electronic enforcement of traffic laws in India, consider the following statements:
    1. Section 136A of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 places the duty of electronic monitoring and enforcement of road safety on State Governments.
    2. Rule 167A of the Central Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989 requires the notice of offence to be sent within 15 days of the offence.
    3. Section 136A was part of the original Motor Vehicles Act, 1988.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. Statement 1 is correct: Section 136A requires the State Government to ensure electronic monitoring and enforcement on national highways, State highways and urban roads. Statement 2 is correct: Rule 167A (2021) says the notice of offence shall be sent within fifteen days. Statement 3 is wrong: Section 136A was inserted by the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2019.

  2. Under the Supreme Court's order of 28 September 2026, consider the following consequences for a vehicle with unpaid e-challans:
    1. Refusal of a Pollution Under Control certificate
    2. Blacklisting on the Parivahan portal
    3. Refusal of transfer of ownership
    4. Automatic cancellation of the registration certificate
    How many of the above are among the Court's directions?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. 1, 2 and 3 are among the directions: PUC and fitness certificates are withheld, the vehicle is blacklisted on Parivahan and ownership transfer is blocked. 4 is not: the order blocks renewal or duplicate of the RC, it does not cancel the registration.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    1. Section 136A of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 was inserted by the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2019.
    2. Rule 167A covers critical junctions in cities with a population above one million.
    3. Rule 167A requires a notice of offence to be sent within 30 days.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. 1 is correct. 2 is correct: about 132 million-plus cities are covered along with national and State highways. 3 is wrong: the limit is 15 days.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: The Supreme Court has linked unpaid e-challans to services such as RC renewal and PUC certificates.
    Statement-II: The Court found that only about half the value of e-challans issued nationally had been recovered.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. The Court noted that ₹26,175.05 crore of ₹49,194.05 crore had been recovered and said issuing challans is of little use without recovery; that low recovery is the reason it tied fines to services. So Statement-II explains Statement-I.

  5. The term 'continuing mandamus', sometimes seen in the news, refers to:

    1. A writ that can be issued only by a High Court against a private person
    2. A practice in which a court keeps a case pending and issues directions over time to monitor compliance
    3. A rule that a writ of mandamus lapses after one year
    4. A power of the President to direct State Governments under Article 256
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) A practice in which a court keeps a case pending and issues directions over time to monitor compliance. In continuing mandamus the court does not close the case after one order but keeps it open, monitors the executive and issues further directions, as in the road safety case. The other options are not what the term means.

  6. Consider the following statements about the S. Rajaseekaran case:
    1. It is a public interest case on road safety filed in 2012.
    2. In it the Supreme Court set up a Committee on Road Safety in 2014.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct. The petition (WP (C) 295 of 2012) was filed by Dr S. Rajaseekaran, and the Court constituted a Committee on Road Safety in 2014 to oversee compliance.

EC orders drive to enrol left-out voters in 20 SIR States, drops added Form 6 question

  1. With reference to electoral rolls in India, consider the following statements:
    1. Form 6 is used by a person to apply for inclusion of the name in the electoral roll.
    2. The Election Commission can direct a special revision of the electoral roll for a constituency at any time under the Representation of the People Act, 1950.
    3. Electoral rolls can be revised only once in five years, just before a general election.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. 1 is correct: Form 6 is the application for inclusion of a new elector. 2 is correct: Section 21(3) of the RP Act, 1950 allows a special revision at any time for reasons to be recorded. 3 is wrong: rolls are revised regularly and also updated continuously, and special revisions can be ordered at any time.

  2. Consider the following about the ECI's instruction of 29 September 2026:
    1. It applies to States and UTs where the SIR is complete.
    2. It requires use of Form 6 without the question added in July.
    3. It asks CEOs to compare pre-SIR and post-SIR rolls.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) All three. All three are correct as reported: the drive covers 20 States and UTs where the SIR is over, plain statutory Form 6 is to be used, and pre- and post-SIR rolls are to be compared to find deleted electors.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    1. Article 324 vests superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls in the Election Commission.
    2. Article 326 provides that elections to the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies shall be on the basis of adult suffrage.
    3. The minimum voting age of 18 years was part of the Constitution as adopted in 1950.
    4. Electoral rolls are prepared under the Representation of the People Act, 1950.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. 3 is wrong: the original age was 21; the Sixty-first Amendment Act, 1988 lowered it to 18. Rolls are governed by the RP Act, 1950, while the conduct of elections is under the RP Act, 1951.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: The Election Commission has asked CEOs to compare electoral rolls before and after the Special Intensive Revision.
    Statement-II: Article 326 bars the Election Commission from deleting any name from an electoral roll.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. Statement-I is correct. Statement-II is wrong: Article 326 guarantees adult suffrage to citizens not disqualified by law; names of dead, shifted or ineligible persons can be lawfully deleted after due process.

  5. The 'Electoral Registration Officer' in India is:

    1. An officer of a political party who checks the roll at each booth
    2. The statutory authority responsible for preparing and revising the roll of a constituency
    3. A member of the Election Commission nominated by the President
    4. The officer who counts votes on counting day
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) The statutory authority responsible for preparing and revising the roll of a constituency. The ERO is a statutory officer under the RP Act, 1950 who prepares the roll for a constituency and decides inclusions and deletions. Party agents are booth-level agents; counting is supervised by the Returning Officer.

  6. Consider the following statements:
    1. Continuous updation allows a person to apply for inclusion in the roll during the year, outside a special revision.
    2. In the special drive, Booth Level Officers are to collect documents from voters' homes.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct. Continuous updation runs through the year using forms such as Form 6, and the reported instructions ask BLOs to collect documents from homes rather than require voters to come in.

Op-ed: India's factories are growing, but not creating jobs at the scale needed

  1. With reference to the Annual Survey of Industries (ASI), consider the following statements:
    1. It covers factories registered under Sections 2(m)(i) and 2(m)(ii) of the Factories Act, 1948.
    2. It is conducted by the Reserve Bank of India.
    3. In ASI 2024-25, the number of persons engaged in the sector crossed 2 crore.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only. 1 is correct: these are units with 10 or more workers using power or 20 or more without power. 2 is wrong: the ASI is conducted by the National Statistics Office under MoSPI. 3 is correct: persons engaged rose to 2.10 crore.

  2. Consider the following statements about ASI 2024-25:
    1. Invested capital grew faster than persons engaged.
    2. Total emoluments grew faster than net profit.
    3. Output grew faster than GVA.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. 1 is correct: 11.10% against 7.19%. 2 is correct: 12.08% against 7.73%. 3 is wrong: output grew 7.81% while GVA grew 9.59%.

  3. Consider the following States:
    1. Tamil Nadu
    2. Gujarat
    3. Haryana
    4. West Bengal
    How many of the above are among the top five States by factory employment in ASI 2024-25?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Tamil Nadu, Gujarat and Haryana are in the top five, along with Maharashtra and Uttar Pradesh. West Bengal is not.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: In ASI 2024-25, invested capital in registered factories grew faster than the number of persons engaged.
    Statement-II: A rise in capital intensity means each additional worker is employed with more capital.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Statement-I is correct (11.10% against 7.19%). Statement-II correctly defines rising capital intensity, and it explains why capital grew faster than employment.

  5. Which of the following is the best description of 'gross value added' in the ASI?

    1. Total sales of factories
    2. Value of output minus value of inputs used up in production
    3. Total wages paid to workers
    4. Net profit after tax
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Value of output minus value of inputs used up in production. GVA is output minus intermediate inputs. It is the value the factory sector adds to the economy; it is not sales, wages or profit.

  6. Consider the following statements:
    1. The Periodic Labour Force Survey is conducted by the National Statistics Office.
    2. The Annual Survey of Industries covers unregistered household enterprises.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. 1 is correct. 2 is wrong: the ASI covers registered factories; unincorporated enterprises are covered by the Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises (ASUSE).

Centre and Ladakh fix standard names for 28 places on the Survey of India map

  1. Consider the following pairs of a name given to a feature in Ladakh and the historical figure it shares its name with:
    1. Zorawar Peak : Dogra general who led campaigns in Ladakh in the 1830s
    2. Atisha Giri : Bengali Buddhist teacher who went to Tibet in the 11th century
    3. Kanishka Peak : Mauryan emperor who convened the Third Buddhist Council
    Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. 1 is correct: Zorawar Singh, general of Gulab Singh, conquered Ladakh from 1834. 2 is correct: Atisha of Vikramashila reached Tibet around 1042. 3 is wrong: Kanishka was a Kushan emperor associated with the Fourth Buddhist Council; the Third Council was held under the Mauryan emperor Ashoka.

  2. Consider the following names among the 28 standard names notified for Ladakh:
    1. Milarepa Kangri
    2. Kanishka Peak
    3. Galwan Ridge
    How many of the above are in the list?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Milarepa Kangri and Kanishka Peak are peaks in the list. Galwan Ridge is not one of the 28 names.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    1. Atisha is regarded, with his disciple Dromton, as founder of the Kadam school.
    2. Rinchen Zangpo was sent by King Yeshe-O of Guge to study in Kashmir.
    3. Milarepa was the teacher of Marpa.
    4. Padmasambhava is credited with Samye, the first Buddhist monastery in Tibet.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. 3 is wrong: Marpa was Milarepa's teacher, not the other way round.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: China has issued lists of names for places in Arunachal Pradesh since 2017.
    Statement-II: India gave standard names to 28 places in Ladakh on 2 October 2026 in response to a Chinese list of names for Ladakh.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. Statement-I is correct: China issued lists in 2017, 2021, 2023, 2024 and 2025. Statement-II is wrong: the PIB release does not refer to China or to any Chinese list for Ladakh; it says the aim is accurate recognition and public awareness.

  5. Which one of the following is responsible for naming conventions and spellings of names of geographical features in India?

    1. Geological Survey of India
    2. Survey of India
    3. Registrar General of India
    4. Indian Space Research Organisation
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Survey of India. The Survey of India, the national mapping agency founded in 1767 and now under the Department of Science and Technology, is responsible for naming conventions and spellings of geographical names. The new Ladakh names were placed on its official map.

  6. Consider the following statements about Zorawar Singh:
    1. He was a general of the Dogra ruler Gulab Singh.
    2. He died during a campaign in Tibet in 1841.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct. Zorawar Singh served Gulab Singh, conquered Ladakh from 1834, and was killed at the Battle of To-yo in Tibet on 12 December 1841.

Delhi's September AQI hits a five-year low even as PM2.5 and PM10 levels rose

  1. With reference to India's National Air Quality Index (AQI), consider the following statements:
    1. The overall AQI is the average of the sub-indices of all pollutants measured.
    2. Ammonia and lead are among the pollutants covered.
    3. An AQI value of 102 falls in the 'moderate' category.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only. 1 is wrong: the overall AQI is the worst (highest) sub-index. 2 is correct: the eight pollutants are PM10, PM2.5, NO2, SO2, CO, O3, NH3 and lead. 3 is correct: 101 to 200 is the moderate band.

  2. Consider the following gases:
    1. Carbon dioxide
    2. Ozone
    3. Ammonia
    4. Methane
    How many of the above are among the pollutants used in India's National Air Quality Index?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Ozone and ammonia are included. Carbon dioxide and methane are greenhouse gases but are not part of the AQI's eight pollutants.

  3. Consider the following statements about Delhi's air in 2026:
    1. The average AQI in September 2026 was lower than in September 2025.
    2. Average PM2.5 from January to late September 2026 was lower than in 2025.
    3. The number of poor to severe days from January to September 2026 was lower than in 2022.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. 1 is correct: 102 against 105. 2 is wrong: it was 69 µg/m³, the same as in 2025. 3 is correct: 79 days against 127 in 2022.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Delhi's average AQI can fall in a month even when PM2.5 and PM10 levels rise.
    Statement-II: The overall AQI is the highest of the sub-indices of the pollutants measured.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. Because the AQI reports the worst sub-index, a fall in other pollutants such as ozone or NO2 can lower the index even while particulates rise; this is the explanation in the Indian Express report.

  5. Which one of the following statements about the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) is correct?

    1. It was created by an executive order of the Delhi Government in 2017
    2. It is a statutory body set up under a 2021 Act for the National Capital Region and adjoining areas
    3. It is an attached office of the Central Pollution Control Board
    4. It only covers the National Capital Territory of Delhi
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) It is a statutory body set up under a 2021 Act for the National Capital Region and adjoining areas. CAQM was set up under the Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Act, 2021, replacing the earlier Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority. Its jurisdiction covers the NCR and adjoining areas, not Delhi alone.

  6. Consider the following statements:
    1. The World Health Organization's 2021 guideline for annual average PM2.5 is 5 µg/m³.
    2. India's National Ambient Air Quality Standards set the annual PM2.5 limit at 40 µg/m³.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct. WHO lowered its annual PM2.5 guideline from 10 to 5 µg/m³ in 2021; India's 2009 NAAQS set it at 40 µg/m³.