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UPSC current affairs quiz, 18 October 2026

30 Prelims-style questions on the day's news, in the formats UPSC uses (statement-based, How many, Statement-I and II), each with the answer and an explanation. Try each one before you open the answer.

Read 18 October 2026 first17 October 2026 quiz19 October 2026 quizTimed test in the app

Supreme Court: children have a fundamental right to access and use the internet

  1. In October 2026 the Supreme Court held that the right to access and use the internet is a fundamental right. Under which provisions did it place this right?

    1. Article 14 read with Article 15
    2. Article 21 read with Article 19(1)(a)
    3. Article 19(1)(g) read with Article 301
    4. Article 21A read with Article 45
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Article 21 read with Article 19(1)(a). The Bench held the right flows from Article 21 (life and personal liberty) read with Article 19(1)(a) (freedom of speech and expression), and that it extends to children.

  2. Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court's October 2026 order on children and the internet:
    1. It held that the right to access and use the internet is a fundamental right of children as well as adults.
    2. It struck down all age-based restrictions, including on adult-content websites.
    3. It directed the Centre to create a national hash and URL database solely for CSEAM.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. 1 is correct: the right applies to children too. 2 is incorrect: the Court said the government may still restrict access to inherently harmful services such as adult-content websites, and it did not oppose proportionate safeguards. 3 is correct: it ordered a National Hash and URL List Database used only for CSEAM.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: The Supreme Court held that keeping children offline to protect them from online harm would be disproportionate.
    Statement-II: The Court held that the harm lies in harmful material, its creators and circulators, and platforms that fail to remove it, not in children themselves.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. The Court reasoned that measures should target the material and those who spread it, so excluding children would 'mistake the victim for the problem'. That reasoning is why blanket exclusion is disproportionate, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.

  4. Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court's 2024 judgment in Just Rights for Children Alliance v. S. Harish:
    1. It upheld the Madras High Court's view that merely viewing such material is not an offence.
    2. It recommended the term 'child sexual exploitative and abuse material' in place of 'child pornography'.
    3. It held that intermediaries cannot rely on safe harbour under Section 79 of the IT Act for such material.
    4. It was delivered by a Bench that included Justice J.B. Pardiwala.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. 1 is incorrect: the Court reversed the Madras High Court and held that viewing, possessing and storing such material is an offence. 2 is correct. 3 is correct: safe harbour does not apply. 4 is correct: the Bench was Chief Justice D.Y. Chandrachud and Justice Pardiwala, who wrote it. So three are correct.

  5. With reference to the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, consider the following statements:
    1. A child means a person who has not completed 18 years.
    2. A data fiduciary may track children and target advertising at them if a parent consents.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. 1 is correct. 2 is incorrect: Section 9(3) bars tracking, behavioural monitoring and targeted advertising directed at children; parental consent does not lift the bar, and only notified exemptions apply.

  6. In Anuradha Bhasin v. Union of India (2020), the Supreme Court held that:

    1. Access to the internet is a fundamental right under Article 21A
    2. Freedom of expression through the internet is protected under Article 19(1)(a), and restrictions must be proportionate
    3. Internet shutdowns can never be ordered
    4. Internet access is a Directive Principle under Article 39
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Freedom of expression through the internet is protected under Article 19(1)(a), and restrictions must be proportionate. The Court held that expression through the medium of the internet is protected by Article 19(1)(a) and that restrictions must be necessary and proportionate. It did not decide whether access itself is a right, since that was not argued, and it did not ban shutdowns outright.

Trump waives Graham Act tariffs on Russian oil buyers, giving India relief for now

  1. A tariff levied as a fixed percentage of the value of imported goods is known as:

    1. Specific duty
    2. Ad valorem duty
    3. Anti-dumping duty
    4. Countervailing duty
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Ad valorem duty. An ad valorem duty is a percentage of value, like the Graham Act's 500% and 100% duties. A specific duty is a fixed amount per unit; anti-dumping and countervailing duties answer dumping and subsidies, whatever their form.

  2. Consider the following statements about the U.S. executive order of 16 October 2026:
    1. It waived the duties provided for in Sections 112 and 113 of the Graham Act.
    2. It lifts all Russia sanctions imposed under earlier executive orders.
    3. Its waivers expire automatically after 180 days.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Only one. 1 is correct. 2 is incorrect: sanctions under earlier executive orders are not undone. 3 is incorrect: the waivers have no fixed end date and last until the President or the Secretary of State decides further action is appropriate. Only one is correct.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: The Graham Act's tariff on the largest importers of Russian crude is an example of a secondary sanction.
    Statement-II: Secondary sanctions penalise third countries or foreign entities for dealing with the sanctioned state.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. The tariff hits countries such as India that buy from Russia, not Russia itself; that is exactly what makes it a secondary sanction, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.

  4. Consider the following about the Lindsey O. Graham Sanctioning Russia and Iran Act of 2026:
    1. It provides for a 500% ad valorem duty increase on goods from Russia.
    2. It provides for tariffs on the top five facilitators of Russian oil sanctions evasion.
    3. It allows the President to waive measures by certifying a national interest to Congress.
    4. It was passed unanimously by the U.S. Senate.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. 1, 2 and 3 are correct: Section 112 (500%), Section 113 (top five importers and top five facilitators) and Section 115 (waiver). 4 is incorrect: the Senate vote was 86 to 11.

  5. With reference to the waiver, consider the following statements:
    1. The duty on new purchases of Russian crude would have applied from 18 October 2026.
    2. The order names India as exempt from the Act.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. 1 is correct: the 100% duty applied to new purchases on or after 18 October 2026. 2 is incorrect: the waiver is general, covering all the Act's duties, and does not single out India.

  6. CAATSA, under which the U.S. sanctioned Turkey in December 2020, is:

    1. A UN Security Council resolution on Russia
    2. A U.S. law, the Countering America's Adversaries Through Sanctions Act, 2017
    3. A European Union regulation on oil price caps
    4. A WTO safeguard agreement
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) A U.S. law, the Countering America's Adversaries Through Sanctions Act, 2017. CAATSA is the U.S. Countering America's Adversaries Through Sanctions Act of 2017. Turkey was sanctioned under its Section 231 for buying the Russian S-400 system.

FSSAI proposes a ban on added sucrose and fructose in foods for infants up to six months

  1. Under the Food Safety and Standards (Foods for Infant Nutrition) Regulations, 2020, which carbohydrates are named as 'preferred' for food for infant nutrition?

    1. Sucrose and fructose
    2. Lactose and glucose polymers
    3. Honey and maple syrup
    4. Starch and sorbitol
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Lactose and glucose polymers. Regulation 3(6) says lactose and glucose polymers shall be the preferred carbohydrates; sucrose and fructose may be added only when needed, up to 20% of total carbohydrate.

  2. Consider the following statements about FSSAI's draft amendment of October 2026:
    1. It would bar added sucrose and fructose in products for infants up to six months.
    2. It has come into force immediately on publication.
    3. It amends the Foods for Infant Nutrition Regulations, 2020.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. 1 is correct. 2 is incorrect: it is a draft open for 60 days of objections and suggestions before finalisation. 3 is correct. So two are correct.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: FSSAI first published its October 2026 infant food rule as a draft inviting objections.
    Statement-II: Section 92 of the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 requires regulations to be made after previous publication.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct, and the legal requirement of previous publication under Section 92(1) is the reason a draft comes first, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.

  4. With reference to the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India, consider the following statements:
    1. It was established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006.
    2. Its administrative ministry is the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution.
    3. It has a Chairperson and 22 members, one-third of whom are women.
    4. The FSS Act replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. 1, 3 and 4 are correct. 2 is incorrect: FSSAI works under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. So three are correct.

  5. With reference to WHO's 2023 guideline on complementary feeding, consider the following statements:
    1. Complementary foods should begin at six months of age.
    2. Breastfeeding should stop once complementary foods begin.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. 1 is correct. 2 is incorrect: WHO advises that breastfeeding continue up to two years or beyond, alongside complementary foods.

  6. Which of the following is a product category under the Foods for Infant Nutrition Regulations, 2020?

    1. Energy drinks for adolescents
    2. Follow-up formula for six to 24 months
    3. Fortified rice under the PDS
    4. Nutraceuticals for adults
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Follow-up formula for six to 24 months. Follow-up formula is listed under infant food, alongside milk cereal based and processed cereal based complementary foods. The other items are not covered by these regulations.

Explained: Why central banks from the Fed to the RBI are raising interest rates again

  1. After the RBI's October 2026 policy, which of the following correctly orders the three rates from lowest to highest?

    1. Repo rate, Standing Deposit Facility rate, Marginal Standing Facility rate
    2. Standing Deposit Facility rate, repo rate, Marginal Standing Facility rate
    3. Marginal Standing Facility rate, repo rate, Standing Deposit Facility rate
    4. Standing Deposit Facility rate, Marginal Standing Facility rate, repo rate
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Standing Deposit Facility rate, repo rate, Marginal Standing Facility rate. The SDF (5.25%) is the floor of the corridor, the repo (5.50%) is the policy rate, and the MSF (5.75%) is the ceiling.

  2. Consider the following statements about the rate decisions of September 2026:
    1. The U.S. Federal Reserve's hike was its first since July 2023.
    2. The Bank of Japan's decision to raise its rate was unanimous.
    3. The ECB cut its deposit facility rate to 2.25%.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Only one. 1 is correct. 2 is incorrect: the BoJ Policy Board voted 7 to 2. 3 is incorrect: the ECB raised its deposit facility rate from 2.25% to 2.50%. So only one is correct.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Raising the policy rate is less effective against cost-push inflation than against demand-pull inflation.
    Statement-II: Higher interest rates cannot directly increase the supply of goods such as crude oil or food.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. Rate hikes work by curbing demand; when inflation comes from a supply shock, they cannot add supply and act only indirectly, which is why they are less effective. Statement-II explains Statement-I.

  4. Consider the following statements about the RBI's October 2026 monetary policy:
    1. The repo rate was raised to 5.50%.
    2. The decision on the rate was unanimous.
    3. The stance was changed from neutral to 'calibrated tightening'.
    4. The RBI projected CPI inflation for 2026-27 below the 4% target.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. 1, 2 and 3 are correct; two members wanted to keep a neutral stance but all voted for the hike. 4 is incorrect: the projection was 5.2%, above the 4% target.

  5. Consider the following statements:
    1. If interest rates in the U.S. rise sharply relative to India's, foreign portfolio capital may flow out of India.
    2. A weaker rupee tends to lower the rupee cost of India's crude oil imports.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. 1 is correct: a wider rate gap makes dollar assets more attractive. 2 is incorrect: a weaker rupee raises the rupee cost of dollar-priced oil imports.

  6. In India's monetary policy corridor, which rate acts as the floor?

    1. Repo rate
    2. Marginal Standing Facility rate
    3. Standing Deposit Facility rate
    4. Bank Rate
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Standing Deposit Facility rate. The Standing Deposit Facility rate (5.25% after October 2026) is the floor; the MSF and Bank Rate (5.75%) form the ceiling, and the repo rate (5.50%) is the policy rate between them.

Sri Lanka's rights commission says militarisation persists in the Tamil North and East

  1. The 13th Amendment to the Constitution of Sri Lanka, often raised by India, is associated with:

    1. Abolition of the executive presidency
    2. Creation of provincial councils following the 1987 Indo-Lanka Accord
    3. Recognition of Tamil as the sole official language
    4. Establishment of the Office on Missing Persons
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Creation of provincial councils following the 1987 Indo-Lanka Accord. The 13th Amendment followed the Indo-Lanka Accord signed in July 1987 by Rajiv Gandhi and J.R. Jayewardene and created nine provincial councils to devolve power.

  2. Consider the following statements about the HRCSL's October 2026 report:
    1. It says militarisation remains a persistent feature of governance and land use in the Northern and Eastern Provinces.
    2. It found that Sri Lanka has a comprehensive security sector reform plan that is being implemented.
    3. It recommends a voluntary DNA bank for families of the disappeared.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. 1 is correct. 2 is incorrect: the report says Sri Lanka lacks a comprehensive security sector reform plan. 3 is correct. So two are correct.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: The impact of the HRCSL's recommendations depends largely on the government's willingness to act on them.
    Statement-II: The HRCSL has no power to enforce its own decisions.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. Because the Commission cannot enforce its decisions and only reports to authorities, its impact rests on political will, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.

  4. With reference to Sri Lanka's 13th Amendment, consider the following statements:
    1. It followed the Indo-Lanka Accord of July 1987.
    2. It created nine provincial councils.
    3. Land and police powers have been fully devolved to the provinces.
    4. A referendum on merging the Northern and Eastern Provinces was held in 1988.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. 1 and 2 are correct. 3 is incorrect: only education and health have been partly devolved; land and police powers have not. 4 is incorrect: the referendum on merger was never held. So two are correct.

  5. Consider the following statements:
    1. Under the HRCSL Act, anyone arresting a person under the Prevention of Terrorism Act must inform the Commission within 48 hours.
    2. The HRCSL was set up after the end of the civil war in 2009.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. 1 is correct. 2 is incorrect: the HRCSL was created by Act No. 21 of 1996 and set up in March 1997, during the war.

  6. Mullaitivu, Jaffna and Valikamam North, mentioned in the HRCSL report, are located in which province of Sri Lanka?

    1. Western Province
    2. Southern Province
    3. Northern Province
    4. Uva Province
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Northern Province. Jaffna (including Valikamam North) and Mullaitivu are districts and areas of the Northern Province, the Tamil-majority region at the centre of the report.