Pratidin

UPSC current affairs quiz, 20 October 2026

24 Prelims-style questions on the day's news, in the formats UPSC uses (statement-based, How many, Statement-I and II), each with the answer and an explanation. Try each one before you open the answer.

Read 20 October 2026 first19 October 2026 quizTimed test in the app

Supreme Court: voters can file private complaints over false election affidavits

  1. With reference to Section 125A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, consider the following statements:
    1. It punishes a candidate who conceals information in the affidavit filed with the nomination paper.
    2. The maximum imprisonment it prescribes is two years.
    3. After the Supreme Court's October 2026 ruling, a complaint under it can be filed only by the Election Commission of India.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct: Section 125A covers failing to furnish, falsifying or concealing information in the nomination paper or the Section 33A affidavit. Statement 2 is wrong: the maximum is six months' imprisonment, or fine, or both. Statement 3 is wrong: the Court held that any private person, including a voter, can file the complaint.

  2. Consider the following statements:
    1. Section 125A was inserted into the Representation of the People Act, 1951 in 2002.
    2. Clause (a) of Section 195(1) of the CrPC lists Section 125A among offences that need a public servant's complaint.
    3. The Karnataka High Court had held that only the Election Commission or the public servant concerned could start a Section 125A case.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is correct: Section 125A was introduced in 2002. Statement 2 is wrong: the Supreme Court noted that clause (a) of Section 195(1) does not include Section 125A. Statement 3 is correct: that was the High Court's reasoning, which the Supreme Court rejected.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: In Rajkumar Madki v. Dr. Shailendra Beldale, the Supreme Court held that an Election Commission press note of June 2020 cannot restrict who may file a Section 125A complaint.
    Statement-II: The Supreme Court observed that interpretation of statutes is primarily the task of the courts.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. The Court refused to be bound by the press note precisely because interpreting a statute is the courts' job, so Statement-II is the reason for Statement-I.

  4. With reference to the October 2026 Supreme Court ruling on Section 125A, consider the following statements:
    1. The Bench comprised Justices Dipankar Datta and Sheel Nagu.
    2. The Court revived the criminal complaint against the MLA.
    3. The complaint alleged a false residential address in the nomination affidavit.
    4. The offence is punishable with imprisonment up to six months, or fine, or both.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the Court upheld the quashing on different grounds because documents prima facie rebutted the allegation and conviction looked remote.

  5. In Union of India v. Association for Democratic Reforms (2002), the Supreme Court linked the voter's right to know about candidates' antecedents to which provision of the Constitution?

    1. Article 324
    2. Article 326
    3. Article 21
    4. Article 19(1)(a)
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) Article 19(1)(a). The Court held that the right to know candidates' antecedents is a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(a), the freedom of speech and expression. Article 324 deals with the Election Commission and Article 326 with adult suffrage.

  6. Consider the following statements:
    1. In PUCL v. Union of India (2003), the Supreme Court struck down Section 33B of the Representation of the People Act.
    2. In Public Interest Foundation v. Union of India (2018), the Supreme Court disqualified candidates against whom criminal charges had been framed.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct: Section 33B was struck down on 13 March 2003. Statement 2 is wrong: in 2018 the Court held it could not add disqualifications, urged Parliament to legislate and instead directed wide publicity of criminal records.

COP17 opens in Yerevan for the first global review of the 2030 biodiversity targets

  1. With reference to the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework, consider the following statements:
    1. It was adopted in December 2022 and has 23 targets for 2030.
    2. Its Target 3 seeks to conserve at least 30% of terrestrial and inland water areas and of marine and coastal areas by 2030.
    3. Its first global review is taking place at COP17 in Yerevan.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3. All three are correct. The framework was adopted in December 2022 with 23 targets for 2030 and four goals for 2050. Target 3 is the '30x30' target. COP17 in Yerevan (19 to 30 October 2026) is the first global review of collective progress under it.

  2. Consider the following statements about COP17 of the Convention on Biological Diversity:
    1. It is being held in Yerevan, Armenia.
    2. It is the first global review of progress under the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework.
    3. Its President is Astrid Schomaker.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: Astrid Schomaker is the CBD Executive Secretary; Armenia's Environment Minister Hambardzum Matevosyan was elected COP17 President.

  3. According to the State of Biodiversity Action report (October 2026), consider the following statements:
    1. Nearly 90% of the CBD's Parties have set national biodiversity targets.
    2. Close to 60% of Parties have prepared national biodiversity strategies and action plans.
    3. More than half of the national targets assessed are on track.
    4. The report was launched by the UN Secretary-General.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: fewer than half of the national targets assessed are on track.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Target 19 of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework seeks to mobilise at least $200 billion a year for biodiversity by 2030 from all sources.
    Statement-II: Target 18 of the framework seeks to reduce incentives harmful to biodiversity by at least $500 billion a year by 2030.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I. Both are correct statements of two separate targets. Cutting harmful incentives (Target 18) does not explain the resource mobilisation goal (Target 19).

  5. Consider the following statements:
    1. The Convention on Biological Diversity was opened for signature at the Rio Earth Summit in June 1992.
    2. The Convention entered into force on 29 December 1993.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct. The CBD opened for signature on 5 June 1992 at the UN Conference on Environment and Development and entered into force on 29 December 1993, 90 days after the 30th ratification.

  6. Which international instrument, adopted in 2010 and in force since 12 October 2014, deals with access to genetic resources and the fair sharing of benefits from their use?

    1. Cartagena Protocol
    2. Kyoto Protocol
    3. Montreal Protocol
    4. Nagoya Protocol
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) Nagoya Protocol. The Nagoya Protocol was adopted on 29 October 2010 and entered into force on 12 October 2014. The Cartagena Protocol deals with biosafety of living modified organisms; Kyoto with greenhouse gases; Montreal with ozone-depleting substances.

India-New Zealand FTA enters into force, giving all Indian exports duty-free entry

  1. With reference to the India-New Zealand Free Trade Agreement, consider the following statements:
    1. New Zealand gives duty-free access to all of India's exports from entry into force.
    2. India has opened its dairy sector to New Zealand imports at zero duty.
    3. Kiwifruit from New Zealand enters India duty-free within a tariff-rate quota.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 1 and 3 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only. Statement 1 is correct: New Zealand removes duties on 100% of tariff lines for Indian exports. Statement 2 is wrong: dairy is in India's exclusion list. Statement 3 is correct: kiwifruit gets a quota rising from 6,250 to 15,000 tonnes at 0% in-quota duty, with a minimum import price.

  2. Consider the following statements about the India-New Zealand FTA:
    1. It was signed on 27 April 2026 at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.
    2. New Zealand eliminates duties on all tariff lines for Indian exports.
    3. India has kept dairy out of its tariff concessions.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) All three. All three are correct. New Zealand gives duty-free access to 100% of India's exports, and dairy is in India's exclusion list along with sugar, edible oils, onions and others.

  3. Consider the following statements about India's tariff offer to New Zealand:
    1. India liberalises about 70% of its tariff lines.
    2. The liberalised lines cover 95% of bilateral trade value.
    3. Kiwifruit pays a 25% duty within its quota.
    4. Duty on Manuka honey falls to zero by Year 5.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct (70.03% of lines, 95% of trade). Statement 3 is wrong: kiwifruit has 0% in-quota duty; apples pay 25%. Statement 4 is wrong: Manuka honey duty falls to 16.5% by Year 5, within a 200-tonne quota.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Under the India-New Zealand FTA, New Zealand has committed to facilitate USD 20 billion of investment into India.
    Statement-II: The India-EFTA Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement entered into force on 1 October 2025.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I. Both are correct but unrelated as cause and effect. Each agreement has its own investment objective: USD 20 billion with a rebalancing clause for New Zealand; USD 100 billion over 15 years for EFTA.

  5. Under the India-New Zealand FTA, the new Temporary Employment Entry visa pathway for Indians allows:

    1. 1,000 visas per year
    2. 20,000 visas per year
    3. No numerical cap
    4. 5,000 visas at any given time
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) 5,000 visas at any given time. The pathway allows 5,000 visas at any given time, with stays of up to three years. 1,000 a year is the working holiday visa quota; the uncapped category is students.

  6. Consider the following statements:
    1. India-New Zealand merchandise trade was about USD 1.3 billion in 2024-25.
    2. New Zealand is India's largest trading partner in Oceania.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct: USD 1.3 billion, up 49% year on year. Statement 2 is wrong: New Zealand is India's second-largest trading partner in Oceania.