UPSC current affairs quiz, 3 November 2026
30 Prelims-style questions on the day's news, in the formats UPSC uses (statement-based, How many, Statement-I and II), each with the answer and an explanation. Try each one before you open the answer.
SC: rescued bonded labourers must get immediate aid within seven days of release
With reference to the Supreme Court's ruling of November 2026 on bonded labour, consider the following statements:
1. Immediate financial assistance should ordinarily be paid within seven days of the release certificate.
2. Immediate assistance may be withheld until the criminal trial of the employer is concluded.
3. The Union Government must prescribe a uniform format of release certificate.
Which of the statements given above are correct?- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only. Statement 1 is correct: the court set a seven-day norm from the release certificate. Statement 2 is wrong: the court said pending criminal proceedings cannot by themselves delay immediate aid. Statement 3 is correct: the Union must prescribe a uniform certificate recognised by all States and UTs.
Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court's November 2026 directions on bonded labour:
1. Complaints of bondage should ordinarily be verified within 24 hours.
2. Every State and UT must appoint a nodal officer for inter-State coordination within six months.
3. Each district must appoint a grievance officer who ordinarily resolves grievances within 30 days.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (c) All three. All three are directions in the judgment: 24-hour verification of complaints, nodal officers and an inter-State mechanism within six months, and district grievance officers with a 30-day norm.
Consider the following statements about the Central Sector Scheme for Rehabilitation of Bonded Labourer, 2021:
1. It provides category-wise assistance of ₹1 lakh, ₹2 lakh or ₹3 lakh.
2. States must contribute a matching share for cash rehabilitation assistance.
3. Each district must have a rehabilitation fund with a permanent corpus of at least ₹10 lakh.
4. Immediate assistance of up to ₹30,000 per case is provided.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (c) Only three. Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct as per the Labour Ministry. Statement 2 is wrong: States need not provide matching funds for cash rehabilitation assistance.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Supreme Court held that immediate assistance to a rescued bonded labourer cannot be withheld merely because criminal proceedings against the employer are pending.
Statement-II: The court treated identification, release and rehabilitation as linked stages of one continuing constitutional duty.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. Because rehabilitation is part of the same duty as release, it cannot be postponed until a separate criminal process ends; Statement-II is the reason for Statement-I.
Which of the following are envisaged by Article 23 of the Constitution of India?
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings
2. Prohibition of begar and other similar forms of forced labour
3. Prohibition of employment of children below 14 in factories and mines
Select the correct answer using the code given below.- 1 only
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only. Article 23 covers traffic in human beings, begar and other forced labour. The bar on employing children below 14 in factories, mines and hazardous work is Article 24.
In the Surendra Manjhi case, the bonded labourers were rescued in one State but belonged to another. Which pair is correct?
- Rescued in Bihar, belonged to Uttar Pradesh
- Rescued in Uttar Pradesh, belonged to Bihar
- Rescued in Haryana, belonged to Bihar
- Rescued in Uttar Pradesh, belonged to Jharkhand
Show answer
Answer: (b) Rescued in Uttar Pradesh, belonged to Bihar. They were taken from their home districts in Bihar and rescued from a brick kiln in Shahjahanpur, Uttar Pradesh.
Centre notifies VB-G RAM G grievance rules with 15-day deadline, drops draft safeguards
With reference to the VB-G RAM G Grievance Redressal Rules, 2026, consider the following statements:
1. Grievances are handled through a three-tier mechanism at the gram panchayat, block and district levels.
2. A grievance unresolved after 15 days is escalated to the next higher level.
3. The rules require an FIR to be lodged whenever a social audit finds prima facie financial irregularity.
Which of the statements given above are correct?- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. Statements 1 and 2 describe the notified rules. Statement 3 was in the May 2026 draft (Rule 5(d)) but was dropped from the final rules.
Consider the following provisions:
1. A duty to ensure an FIR is lodged when a social audit shows prima facie financial irregularity
2. Placing action taken on grievances before panchayat meetings for review
3. A fixed day each week when grievance officials must be available
How many of the above were in the May 2026 draft but dropped from the final VB-G RAM G grievance rules?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (c) All three. All three were in the draft (Rules 5(d), 5(f) and 6(5), and 3(2)) and none appears in the final rules notified on 2 November 2026.
Consider the following statements about the VB-G RAM G Act, 2025:
1. It guarantees 125 days of wage employment per year to rural households.
2. It repeals the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005.
3. The Centre bears the full cost of wages in all States.
4. States may notify up to 100 days a year in peak agricultural seasons when work can be paused.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: costs are shared 60:40 between the Centre and most States, and States bear spending beyond their normative allocation. Statement 4 is wrong: the seasonal pause is up to 60 days a year, not 100.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Under the 2026 grievance rules, a complaint cannot be refused registration because it is in a regional language or is not in a prescribed format.
Statement-II: The rules require all grievances to be filed only through the Centre's digital platform.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. Statement-I is correct. Statement-II is wrong: complaints can be filed in person, by speed post, by helpline or other State-notified modes as well as online; paper complaints are then entered on the platform.
Under the VB-G RAM G Grievance Redressal Rules, 2026, a complaint received on paper must be entered on the digital platform:
- On the day of receipt, or by the next working day if that is not feasible
- Within seven working days
- Within 15 days
- At the next Gram Sabha meeting
Show answer
Answer: (a) On the day of receipt, or by the next working day if that is not feasible. The rules require same-day entry, or entry by the next working day when immediate registration is not feasible.
Consider the following statements:
1. The draft grievance rules under the VB-G RAM G Act were published in May 2026.
2. Appeals under the final rules lie in accordance with Schedule I of the Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct: the draft is G.S.R. 401(E) of 22 May 2026, and the notified rules provide for appeals in accordance with Schedule I of the Act.
Defence Ministry signs ₹53,866 crore contracts for eight Navy-designed corvettes
With reference to the Next Generation Corvettes contracted in November 2026, consider the following statements:
1. All eight ships will be built by Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers.
2. The ships have been designed in-house by the Indian Navy.
3. They are intended to succeed the Khukri-class and Kora-class corvettes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only. Statement 1 is wrong: GRSE builds five and Goa Shipyard Limited builds three. Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
Consider the following statements about the Next Generation Corvette contracts:
1. They were signed with two defence public sector undertakings.
2. The shipyards were nominated without competition.
3. The ships are meant for anti-submarine as well as anti-surface warfare.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the Ministry said GRSE and GSL were selected through a competitive process.
Consider the following shipyards:
1. Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers
2. Goa Shipyard Limited
3. Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders
4. Cochin Shipyard Limited
How many of the above are defence public sector undertakings under the Ministry of Defence?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (c) Only three. GRSE, GSL and Mazagon Dock are defence PSUs under the Ministry of Defence. Cochin Shipyard is under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, although it built INS Vikrant.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Next Generation Corvettes are expected to create far more employment in ancillary industries and MSMEs than in the shipyards themselves.
Statement-II: The Ministry estimates about 460 lakh person-days in ancillary industries against about 72 lakh in the shipyards over ten years.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct and Statement-II gives the figures that establish Statement-I.
In India's defence procurement process, Acceptance of Necessity (AoN) is accorded by:
- The Cabinet Committee on Security
- The Defence Acquisition Council
- The Department of Defence Production
- The Chief of Naval Staff
Show answer
Answer: (b) The Defence Acquisition Council. AoN is the first formal step under the Defence Acquisition Procedure and is accorded by the Defence Acquisition Council, chaired by the Defence Minister. For the NGCs it came in June 2022.
Consider the following statements:
1. A corvette is generally smaller than a frigate.
2. The Next Generation Corvettes were contracted in the presence of the Defence Secretary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct: corvettes are the smallest of the main combat ship classes, and the contracts were signed in the presence of Defence Secretary Rajesh Kumar Singh.
Explained: What Legislative Councils do, and why only six States have one
With reference to the Legislative Council of a State in India, consider the following statements:
1. A law of Parliament abolishing a Legislative Council is not deemed to be an amendment of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368.
2. The Legislative Council can be dissolved by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister.
3. One-twelfth of the members are elected by teachers of at least three years' standing.
Which of the statements given above are correct?- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only. Statement 1 is correct: Article 169(3). Statement 2 is wrong: under Article 172(2) the Council is not subject to dissolution. Statement 3 is correct: Article 171(3)(c).
Consider the following statements about the Legislative Council of a State:
1. Its total membership cannot exceed one-third of the membership of the Legislative Assembly.
2. Its total membership can in no case be less than 40.
3. One-third of its members are nominated by the Governor.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct under Article 171(1). Statement 3 is wrong: one-third are elected by MLAs and one-third by local authorities; the Governor nominates the remainder, about one-sixth.
Consider the following statements:
1. A Money Bill can be introduced in a Legislative Council if the Chairman consents.
2. A Legislative Council must return a Money Bill within 14 days.
3. There is no provision for a joint sitting of the two Houses of a State legislature.
4. The Council of Ministers of a State is collectively responsible to both Houses.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Statement 1 is wrong: Article 198(1) bars introduction of a Money Bill in a Council. Statement 4 is wrong: the Council of Ministers is responsible only to the Assembly.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Parliament can abolish the Legislative Council of a State by a law passed by a simple majority.
Statement-II: Article 169(3) provides that such a law shall not be deemed to be an amendment of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. Because the law is not an Article 368 amendment, it needs only an ordinary majority in Parliament (after the Assembly's special-majority resolution).
Members of a State Legislative Council elected by local authorities, graduates, teachers and MLAs are chosen by:
- First-past-the-post in single-member constituencies
- Proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote
- List-based proportional representation
- Nomination on the advice of the State Election Commission
Show answer
Answer: (b) Proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote. Article 171(4) provides for proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.
Consider the following statements:
1. Tamil Nadu abolished its Legislative Council in 1986.
2. Andhra Pradesh recreated its Legislative Council in 2007.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct: Tamil Nadu's Council was abolished in 1986; Andhra Pradesh abolished its Council in 1985 and recreated it in 2007.
Arunachal CM tells Siang dam protesters no decision without consultation and consent
With reference to the Siang Upper Multipurpose Project, consider the following statements:
1. It is proposed on the Siang river in Arunachal Pradesh.
2. It was declared a National Project in 2008.
3. Its Detailed Project Report has been approved and construction has begun.
Which of the statements given above are correct?- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. Statements 1 and 2 are correct: the project is on the Siang and was declared a National Project on 7 February 2008. Statement 3 is wrong: it is still at the pre-feasibility stage, and the CM says no construction decision has been taken.
Consider the following statements about the Siang Upper Multipurpose Project:
1. It has a proposed capacity of 11,200 MW.
2. It is one of the 16 National Projects.
3. Its construction was approved by the Union Cabinet in 2025.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: the project is still at the pre-feasibility stage, and the CM says neither the Centre nor the State has taken a construction decision.
Consider the following rivers:
1. Dibang
2. Lohit
3. Subansiri
4. Teesta
How many of the above join the Siang in the Assam plains to form the Brahmaputra?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. The Siang is joined by the Dibang and the Lohit to form the Brahmaputra. The Subansiri and the Teesta are tributaries that join the Brahmaputra further downstream.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Arunachal Pradesh government argues that a large reservoir on the Siang could help manage sudden high flows from upstream.
Statement-II: China began building a large hydropower project on the Yarlung Tsangpo in Medog County in 2025 without consulting India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. The State's case for SUMP as a buffer is explicitly a response to the upstream Medog project, which China began on 19 July 2025 without consulting India.
The 'Great Bend', near which China is building the Medog hydropower project, is a feature of which river?
- Indus
- Sutlej
- Yarlung Tsangpo
- Mekong
Show answer
Answer: (c) Yarlung Tsangpo. The Great Bend is the sharp U-turn of the Yarlung Tsangpo in south-eastern Tibet before it enters India as the Siang.
Consider the following statements:
1. Before construction, SUMP would need a Social Impact Assessment and an Environmental Impact Assessment.
2. Arunachal Pradesh's tribal areas are administered under the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the Sixth Schedule covers tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram, not Arunachal Pradesh.