UPSC current affairs quiz, 11 November 2026
30 Prelims-style questions on the day's news, in the formats UPSC uses (statement-based, How many, Statement-I and II), each with the answer and an explanation. Try each one before you open the answer.
SC tells U.P. it must ensure release of undertrials who got bail but are still in jail
With reference to the Supreme Court's directions of 31 January 2023 in In Re: Policy Strategy for Grant of Bail, consider the following statements:
1. If an accused is not released within 7 days of the grant of bail, the jail superintendent must inform the Secretary of the District Legal Services Authority.
2. If bail bonds are not furnished within one month, the court concerned may on its own consider modifying or relaxing the bail conditions.
3. Courts were directed to insist on a local surety in every case to ensure the accused's attendance.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are among the seven directions of 31 January 2023. Statement 3 is wrong: the Court identified the insistence on a local surety as one of the reasons that delays release and asked courts not to impose it where it causes delay.
Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court's November 2026 directions to Uttar Pradesh:
1. Data from 20 districts showed 264 undertrials who had been granted bail but were not immediately released.
2. 106 of these undertrials remained in jail.
3. The directions were issued by a Constitution Bench headed by the Chief Justice of India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. 1 and 2 are correct: 264 bailed undertrials in 20 districts, of whom 158 were released and 106 stayed in jail. 3 is wrong: a two-judge Bench of Justices M.M. Sundresh and P.B. Varale issued them.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: In 20 districts of Uttar Pradesh, 106 undertrials who had been granted bail were still in jail in November 2026.
Statement-II: These undertrials could not meet bail conditions such as furnishing sureties.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. The 106 prisoners stayed in custody because sureties or other trial court conditions were not met, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.
With reference to Section 479 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, consider the following statements:
1. An undertrial detained for half the maximum sentence for the offence becomes eligible for release on bond.
2. For a first-time offender, the threshold is one-third of the maximum sentence.
3. It applies to offences punishable with death.
4. The jail superintendent must apply to the court in writing for release of eligible undertrials.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (c) Only three. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. 3 is wrong: offences punishable with death or life imprisonment are excluded.
With reference to Satender Kumar Antil v. CBI (2022), consider the following statements:
1. It was decided by a Bench of Justices S.K. Kaul and M.M. Sundresh.
2. It suggested that the Government of India may consider a separate law on bail.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct. The judgment of 11 July 2022 by Justices Kaul and Sundresh also asked that bail pleas generally be decided within two weeks.
According to the 2023 NALSA report cited before the Supreme Court, roughly how many undertrials were in jail despite having been granted bail?
- About 5,000
- About 500
- About 50,000
- About 2,357
Show answer
Answer: (a) About 5,000. The report found about 5,000 such undertrials; 2,357 were given legal assistance and 1,417 were released.
Ladakh sets 4 December polls for eight hill councils amid a Kargil shutdown
Areas in which of the following States are administered under the Sixth Schedule to the Constitution of India?
1. Assam
2. Manipur
3. Mizoram
4. Tripura
Select the correct answer using the code given below.- 1 and 2 only
- 1, 3 and 4 only
- 2, 3 and 4 only
- 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4 only. The Sixth Schedule covers tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. Manipur's hill areas are dealt with under Article 371C and are not Sixth Schedule areas. Ladakh, a Union Territory, is also outside the Sixth Schedule, which is why its groups have demanded inclusion.
Consider the following statements about the 2026 Ladakh hill council elections:
1. Elections will be held to eight councils covering 100 constituencies.
2. The schedule was issued by the Election Commission of India.
3. Panchayat and municipal elections in Ladakh are due on 21 November 2026.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. 1 and 3 are correct. 2 is wrong: the schedule was issued by the State Election Commission, Ladakh, not the Election Commission of India, which conducts Parliament and Assembly polls.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Ladakh's groups say hill councils alone do not give the protection that Sixth Schedule councils enjoy.
Statement-II: Sixth Schedule councils draw their powers from the Constitution, while Ladakh's councils rest on a regulation that can be amended by the President.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct, and the difference in the source of powers is the reason the groups see councils as insufficient.
With reference to the LAHDC (Amendment) Regulation, 2026, consider the following statements:
1. It was promulgated by the President on 16 October 2026.
2. It provides a hill council for each of Ladakh's eight districts.
3. It raises the number of elected seats in each council to 30.
4. It provides for four nominated members from women and unrepresented communities.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (c) Only three. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. 3 is wrong: elected seats now range from 7 to 24 per council, down from 26.
Which one of the following districts of Ladakh was created on 16 October 2026, taking the number of districts to eight?
- Nubra
- Zanskar
- Sankoo
- Changthang
Show answer
Answer: (c) Sankoo. Sankoo became the eighth district on 16 October 2026. Nubra, Zanskar and Changthang were among the districts created earlier in 2026.
Consider the following statements:
1. Under Article 239, every Union Territory is administered by the President acting through an Administrator.
2. Article 371A protects Naga customary law and ownership of land from Acts of Parliament unless the Nagaland Assembly decides otherwise.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct. Ladakh's Lieutenant Governor is its Administrator under Article 239, and 371A is the best-known example of the special provisions Ladakh's groups now cite.
CPCB explains why PM readings above 1,000 µg/m³ dropped out of Delhi's Diwali AQI
Consider the following:
1. Ammonia
2. Lead
3. Carbon dioxide
4. Ozone
How many of the above are among the eight pollutants used to calculate India's National Air Quality Index?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (c) Only three. The NAQI uses PM2.5, PM10, carbon monoxide, nitrogen dioxide, sulphur dioxide, ammonia, ozone and lead. Carbon dioxide is not one of them.
Consider the following statements about the National Air Quality Index (NAQI):
1. It is capped at 500.
2. The lowest sub-index among the pollutants determines the AQI.
3. Carbon monoxide and ozone use an eight-hour averaging period.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. 1 and 3 are correct. 2 is wrong: the highest sub-index, the worst pollutant, sets the AQI.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Several hours of Delhi's worst PM2.5 readings on Diwali night 2026 were missing from CPCB records.
Statement-II: CPCB's automated validation excludes hourly PM readings above the analysers' calibrated range of 0 to 1,000 µg/m³.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct, and the exclusion rule is the CPCB's own explanation of the gaps.
With reference to WHO Air Quality Guidelines 2021 and Indian standards, consider the following statements:
1. The WHO 24-hour guideline for PM2.5 is 15 µg/m³.
2. The WHO annual guideline for PM2.5 is 5 µg/m³.
3. India's 24-hour standard for PM2.5 is 60 µg/m³.
4. WHO guidelines are legally binding on member states.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (c) Only three. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. 4 is wrong: WHO guidelines are advisory; each country sets its own legal standards.
Which one of the following is the minimum condition for calculating the AQI at a station under the NAQI method?
- Data for all eight pollutants
- Data for at least three pollutants, one of which must be PM2.5 or PM10
- Data for PM2.5 alone
- Data for at least five pollutants including ozone
Show answer
Answer: (b) Data for at least three pollutants, one of which must be PM2.5 or PM10. The AQI needs at least three pollutants, including PM2.5 or PM10.
Consider the following statements:
1. The number of continuous ambient air quality monitoring stations in India has grown from 30 in 2014-15 to 634.
2. Delhi has 59 such stations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both figures were given by the CPCB in its 10 November 2026 statement; Delhi's sites have grown from 10 to 59.
Editorial: Tamil Nadu disbands the Kurian Joseph panel on Union-State relations
Consider the following statements:
1. The Inter-State Council was set up by a Presidential Order under Article 263.
2. The Sarkaria Commission on Centre-State relations was appointed by the Government of Tamil Nadu.
3. The Rajamannar Committee on Centre-State relations was appointed by the Government of Tamil Nadu in 1969.
Which of the statements given above are correct?- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only. 1 is correct: the Inter-State Council was set up in 1990 by Presidential Order under Article 263. 3 is correct: Tamil Nadu appointed the Rajamannar Committee in 1969 and it reported in 1971. 2 is wrong: the Sarkaria Commission (1983) was set up by the Union government.
Consider the following statements about the Justice Kurian Joseph committee:
1. It was set up by the Tamil Nadu government in April 2025.
2. It was a statutory body created by an Act of the Tamil Nadu Assembly.
3. Its records were to be handed over to the Tamil Nadu State Law Commission.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. 1 and 3 are correct. 2 is wrong: the government's own order describes it as a non-statutory body.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Sarkaria Commission was set up in 1983 and reported in 1988.
2. The Punchhi Commission was headed by a former Chief Justice of India.
3. The Inter-State Council is chaired by the President of India.
4. The 42nd Amendment moved education from the State List to the Concurrent List.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (c) Only three. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. 3 is wrong: the Inter-State Council is chaired by the Prime Minister; the President only establishes it under Article 263.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Hindu's editorial argues that calling the Kurian committee 'non-statutory' does not justify replacing it with the State Law Commission.
Statement-II: According to the editorial, the State Law Commission was also created by an executive order.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct, and the second is the reason the editorial gives: if both bodies are executive creations, the statutory label does not separate them.
Under which Article of the Constitution of India does Union law generally prevail over State law in case of conflict on a Concurrent List subject?
- Article 248
- Article 254
- Article 263
- Article 256
Show answer
Answer: (b) Article 254. Article 254 deals with inconsistency between Union and State laws. Article 248 vests residuary powers in Parliament, and Article 263 provides for an Inter-State Council.
Consider the following statements about Part I of the Kurian Joseph committee report:
1. It proposed time limits for Governors to act on Bills passed by State legislatures.
2. It endorsed a 'One Nation, One Language' approach.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 only. 1 is correct. 2 is wrong: Part I rejected the 'One Nation, One Language' approach.
U.S. court lets Pannun serve his suit on NSA Doval through Delhi courts; India objects
With reference to the Hague Convention on the Service Abroad of Judicial and Extrajudicial Documents in Civil or Commercial Matters, consider the following statements:
1. It was adopted in 1965 under the Hague Conference on Private International Law.
2. India's Central Authority under the Convention is the Ministry of External Affairs.
3. India has objected to the alternative methods of service under Article 10 of the Convention.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. 1 and 3 are correct. 2 is wrong: India's Central Authority is the Ministry of Law and Justice (Department of Legal Affairs), as the MEA itself stated on 10 November 2026.
Consider the following statements about the 9 November 2026 order in Pannun's lawsuit:
1. It was passed by a U.S. federal district court in New York.
2. It allows service on NSA Ajit Doval through district courts in Delhi.
3. It holds that Doval and Goel are not entitled to immunity.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. 1 and 2 are correct. 3 is wrong: the order is only about how the papers may be served; it does not decide immunity.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The U.S. court allowed Pannun to serve his suit through Indian courts instead of India's Central Authority.
Statement-II: Article 19 of the Hague Service Convention permits methods of service allowed by the receiving State's own law.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct, and Article 19, read with Section 29(c) of India's CPC, is the basis the judge used for the Indian-courts route.
With reference to India and the Hague Service Convention, consider the following statements:
1. India acceded to the Convention in 2006.
2. India's Central Authority is the Ministry of Law and Justice.
3. India has objected to the alternative channels of service under Article 10.
4. India allows service through diplomatic channels on its own nationals at the request of any foreign State.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (c) Only three. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. 4 is wrong: India does not permit service through diplomatic or consular channels except on nationals of the requesting State.
Which one of the following U.S. laws governs when a foreign State can be sued in American courts?
- Alien Registration Act
- Foreign Sovereign Immunities Act
- Foreign Agents Registration Act
- International Emergency Economic Powers Act
Show answer
Answer: (b) Foreign Sovereign Immunities Act. The Foreign Sovereign Immunities Act, 1976 governs suits against foreign States and how they are served. The others deal with alien registration, lobbying for foreign principals and economic sanctions.
Consider the following statements:
1. Section 29 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 deals with the service of summonses issued by certain foreign courts.
2. Under the CPC, a foreign summons served through an Indian court is treated as if it had been issued by that Indian court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct: Section 29 allows such summonses to be sent to Indian courts and served as if they were issued by them, where the Centre has notified the foreign court under clause (c).