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UPSC current affairs quiz, 8 September 2026

30 Prelims-style questions on the day's news, in the formats UPSC uses (statement-based, How many, Statement-I and II), each with the answer and an explanation. Try each one before you open the answer.

Read 8 September 2026 first7 September 2026 quiz9 September 2026 quizTimed test in the app

Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan 2026: Lucknow tops million-plus cities on clean air action

  1. With reference to 'Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan', recently in the news, which one of the following statements is correct?

    1. It ranks Indian cities only on the basis of their measured annual Air Quality Index.
    2. It is a survey conducted by the World Health Organization to rank the cleanest cities of Asia.
    3. It ranks cities under the National Clean Air Programme on the actions they take to improve air quality.
    4. It is a household survey of indoor air pollution from cooking fuels conducted under the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana.
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) It ranks cities under the National Clean Air Programme on the actions they take to improve air quality.. Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan is run by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change under NCAP. It scores cities on their interventions, such as waste management and road dust control, in three population categories. It is not a ranking by measured AQI alone, which is why Lucknow can top it while its PM10 level is still above the national standard. It has nothing to do with WHO or with indoor air under Ujjwala.

  2. Consider the following statements about Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan 2026:
    1. Lucknow was ranked first among cities with a population above 10 lakh.
    2. Delhi was ranked among the top ten cities in its category.
    3. Rourkela topped the category of cities with 3 to 10 lakh population.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is correct: Lucknow came first, ahead of Indore and Jabalpur. Statement 2 is wrong: Delhi was ranked 30th. Statement 3 is correct: Rourkela in Odisha topped the 3 to 10 lakh category. So two are correct.

  3. Consider the following statements about the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP):
    1. It was launched in January 2019.
    2. It is a statutory programme created under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
    3. It covers 130 cities.
    4. Its current target is a 40% reduction in PM10 levels, or meeting the national standard, by 2025-26.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: NCAP is a government programme without statutory backing, which is one of the main criticisms of it. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 4 is correct: the target was raised from an early goal of a 20 to 30% cut. So three are correct.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: A city can top Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan even if its annual PM10 level is above the national standard.
    Statement-II: Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan scores cities mainly on the actions they take to reduce air pollution.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both statements are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Because the survey scores interventions such as waste management and road dust control, Lucknow topped it in 2026 even though its PM10 level of 137 µg/m³ is more than twice the 60 µg/m³ standard.

  5. India's National Ambient Air Quality Standards prescribe an annual average limit for PM2.5 of:

    1. 60 µg/m³
    2. 40 µg/m³
    3. 15 µg/m³
    4. 5 µg/m³
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 40 µg/m³. The annual NAAQS limit for PM2.5 is 40 µg/m³. 60 µg/m³ is the annual limit for PM10. 5 µg/m³ is the WHO's 2021 guideline for annual PM2.5, and 15 µg/m³ is WHO's 2021 annual guideline for PM10.

  6. Consider the following statements:
    1. The International Day of Clean Air for Blue Skies is observed on 7 September.
    2. Among NCAP cities, more than 100 recorded lower PM10 levels in 2025-26 than in 2017-18.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Statement 1 is correct: the UN day falls on 7 September and India observes it as Swachh Vayu Diwas. Statement 2 is correct: 108 of the 130 NCAP cities recorded lower PM10 levels in 2025-26 than in 2017-18.

UK recognises India's carbon credit trading scheme under its carbon border tax

  1. Which one of the following bodies administers India's Carbon Credit Trading Scheme, 2023?

    1. Central Pollution Control Board
    2. Securities and Exchange Board of India
    3. Bureau of Energy Efficiency
    4. NITI Aayog
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Bureau of Energy Efficiency. The Bureau of Energy Efficiency, a statutory body under the Ministry of Power created by the Energy Conservation Act, 2001, administers the CCTS, with a National Steering Committee co-chaired by the Ministry of Power and the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change providing oversight. The CPCB enforces pollution laws, SEBI regulates securities markets and NITI Aayog is a policy think tank; none of them administers the scheme.

  2. Consider the following statements about the UK's Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism:
    1. It comes into force on 1 January 2027.
    2. It covers electricity imports.
    3. It allows a deduction for an eligible carbon price already paid in the country of production.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the UK CBAM covers aluminium, cement, fertiliser, hydrogen, and iron and steel; electricity is covered by the EU's CBAM but not the UK's. Statement 3 is correct: this deduction is why the UK's recognition of India's CCTS matters. So two are correct.

  3. Consider the following statements about India's Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS):
    1. It was notified under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
    2. It has both a compliance mechanism and an offset mechanism.
    3. Obligated entities receive greenhouse gas emission intensity targets.
    4. One Carbon Credit Certificate equals one tonne of carbon dioxide equivalent.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Statement 1 is wrong: the CCTS was notified under the Energy Conservation (Amendment) Act, 2022. Statements 2, 3 and 4 are correct. So three are correct.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: The UK's recognition of India's Carbon Credit Trading Scheme can reduce the border charge on some Indian exports to the UK.
    Statement-II: The UK Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism reduces the charge on an import by any eligible carbon price already paid in the country of production.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both statements are correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Relief under the UK CBAM depends on a qualifying overseas carbon price, so recognising the CCTS lets UK importers of Indian goods claim a deduction.

  5. The Bureau of Energy Efficiency was established under which of the following?

    1. Electricity Act, 2003
    2. Energy Conservation Act, 2001
    3. Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
    4. Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Energy Conservation Act, 2001. The Bureau of Energy Efficiency was set up on 1 March 2002 under the Energy Conservation Act, 2001. The 2022 amendment to that Act empowered the government to specify a carbon credit trading scheme, which BEE administers.

  6. Consider the following statements:
    1. Carbon leakage refers to the shift of emissions-intensive production to countries with weaker climate policies.
    2. The EU's Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism began its definitive phase on 1 January 2026.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Statement 1 is correct: preventing carbon leakage is the stated aim of a CBAM. Statement 2 is correct: the EU CBAM had a transitional, reporting-only phase from 1 October 2023 and entered its definitive phase on 1 January 2026.

Manipur to press the Centre for an NRC update with 1951 as the base year

  1. Under which one of the following provisions can the Central Government compulsorily register every citizen of India and issue a national identity card?

    1. Article 11 of the Constitution of India
    2. Section 6A of the Citizenship Act, 1955
    3. Section 14A of the Citizenship Act, 1955
    4. Section 3 of the Foreigners Act, 1946
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Section 14A of the Citizenship Act, 1955. Section 14A, inserted by the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2003, lets the Centre compulsorily register every citizen, issue a national identity card and maintain the National Register of Indian Citizens. Article 11 empowers Parliament to regulate citizenship by law but does not itself create a register. Section 6A contains special provisions on citizenship for people covered by the Assam Accord. Section 3 of the Foreigners Act, 1946 empowered the Centre to make orders regulating foreigners; that Act was repealed by the Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025, in force from 1 September 2025.

  2. Consider the following statements:
    1. Citizenship is a subject in the Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule.
    2. Article 11 empowers Parliament to make laws on the acquisition and termination of citizenship.
    3. Section 14A of the Citizenship Act, 1955 provides for the compulsory registration of every citizen of India.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is wrong: citizenship, naturalisation and aliens is Entry 17 of the Union List. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct: Section 14A was inserted by the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2003. So two are correct.

  3. Consider the following statements about the Assam NRC:
    1. Its cut-off date is 24 March 1971.
    2. The cut-off date comes from the Assam Accord.
    3. It was updated under the supervision of the Supreme Court.
    4. Its final list was published in 2021.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Statement 4 is wrong: the final list was published on 31 August 2019. So three are correct.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: The Government of Manipur cannot by itself prepare a National Register of Citizens for the State.
    Statement-II: Citizenship is a subject in the Union List, and the power to register citizens under the Citizenship Act, 1955 lies with the Central Government.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both statements are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Because citizenship is a Union subject and Section 14A vests the power in the Centre, Manipur has said it will take up the matter with the Centre.

  5. The Inner Line Permit system currently applies to which one of the following groups of States?

    1. Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Manipur
    2. Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Mizoram and Manipur
    3. Sikkim, Nagaland, Mizoram and Tripura
    4. Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Sikkim and Meghalaya
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Mizoram and Manipur. The Inner Line Permit, issued under the Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulation, 1873, applies in Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland and Mizoram, and was extended to Manipur in December 2019.

  6. Consider the following statements:
    1. The military coup in Myanmar took place in February 2021.
    2. The first National Register of Citizens, prepared in Assam, was based on the 1961 Census.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct: the coup took place on 1 February 2021. Statement 2 is wrong: the first NRC was prepared in Assam in 1951 from the data of the 1951 Census.

FATF warns that hawala networks are going digital, using stablecoins and AI

  1. In the context of the Financial Action Task Force's work on underground banking, the term 'HOSSPs' refers to:

    1. High-risk offshore shell companies used for smuggling
    2. Hawala and other similar service providers
    3. Harmonised online settlement systems for payments
    4. Holding companies subject to special supervision
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Hawala and other similar service providers. The FATF uses HOSSPs for hawala and other similar service providers: informal operators who transfer value and settle balances among themselves, often without funds physically crossing borders. Its new report on underground banking examines how HOSSPs are adopting digital tools. The other expansions are invented.

  2. Consider the following statements about the Financial Action Task Force (FATF):
    1. It was established in 1989 on the initiative of the G7.
    2. Its secretariat is located in Paris.
    3. India has been a member of the FATF since its founding.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct: the secretariat is in Paris, hosted by the OECD. Statement 3 is wrong: India became a member in 2010. So two are correct.

  3. Consider the following statements about digital hawala as described in the FATF's recent report:
    1. Stablecoins are increasingly used to settle balances between operators.
    2. Cash is no longer used at any stage of digital hawala.
    3. Artificial intelligence tools are used to structure transactions and route them through mule accounts.
    4. Encrypted messaging and online platforms are used to coordinate transfers.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the report notes that cash still dominates at the points of collection and final payout. So three are correct.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Hawala can move value across borders without funds physically crossing them.
    Statement-II: Hawala operators in different countries pay out on each other's instructions and settle their balances later.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both statements are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Because partner operators pay out locally and settle net balances later, through cash, trade or now virtual assets, value moves without a direct cross-border transfer of the money.

  5. In India, which one of the following agencies investigates offences under both the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 and the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999?

    1. Central Bureau of Investigation
    2. National Investigation Agency
    3. Financial Intelligence Unit-India
    4. Enforcement Directorate
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) Enforcement Directorate. The Enforcement Directorate, under the Department of Revenue, enforces both the PMLA and FEMA. FIU-IND receives and analyses suspicious transaction reports but does not investigate. The CBI and NIA investigate other categories of offences.

  6. Consider the following statements:
    1. The FATF's list of 'high-risk jurisdictions subject to a call for action' is commonly called the grey list.
    2. In June 2024, India was placed in the 'regular follow-up' category after its FATF mutual evaluation.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2 only. Statement 1 is wrong: the call-for-action list is the black list; the grey list is the list of jurisdictions under increased monitoring. Statement 2 is correct: regular follow-up is the best category a country can get.

Op-ed: India's BRICS chairship is a chance to put a divided group back together

  1. Which one of the following countries is a partner country, and not a full member, of BRICS?

    1. Ethiopia
    2. Indonesia
    3. Egypt
    4. Malaysia
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) Malaysia. Malaysia is one of the ten BRICS partner countries. Egypt and Ethiopia became full members in January 2024, and Indonesia became a full member in January 2025.

  2. Consider the following statements about BRICS:
    1. The first BRIC summit was held in Rio de Janeiro in 2009.
    2. South Africa joined the grouping in 2010.
    3. BRICS has a founding charter and a permanent secretariat.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Only one. Statement 1 is wrong: the first summit was held at Yekaterinburg, Russia, in 2009. Statement 2 is correct: South Africa joined in December 2010 and attended its first summit in 2011. Statement 3 is wrong: BRICS works by consensus without a charter or secretariat. So only one is correct.

  3. Consider the following statements about India and BRICS:
    1. India proposed the idea of a BRICS development bank at the 2012 New Delhi summit.
    2. The first president of the New Development Bank was an Indian.
    3. India is chairing BRICS in 2026 for the first time.
    4. The 18th BRICS Summit is being held in New Delhi.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct: K.V. Kamath was the first president. Statement 3 is wrong: India chaired BRICS in 2012, 2016 and 2021 before 2026. Statement 4 is correct. So three are correct.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Disputes between member countries can block BRICS declarations.
    Statement-II: BRICS takes its decisions by consensus.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both statements are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Because every member must agree, a dispute between any two can stop a joint text, which is why the op-ed warns of more documents issued without consensus after expansion.

  5. Where is the headquarters of the New Development Bank?

    1. New Delhi
    2. Johannesburg
    3. Shanghai
    4. Moscow
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Shanghai. The New Development Bank is headquartered in Shanghai. It has regional offices elsewhere, including in Johannesburg and at GIFT City in Gujarat.

  6. Consider the following statements:
    1. The term BRIC was coined by economist Jim O'Neill in 2001.
    2. The Contingent Reserve Arrangement of BRICS is a pool of $100 billion.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Statement 1 is correct: Jim O'Neill of Goldman Sachs coined the term in 2001. Statement 2 is correct: the Contingent Reserve Arrangement agreed at Fortaleza in 2014 has a total of $100 billion.