UPSC current affairs quiz, 7 September 2026
30 Prelims-style questions on the day's news, in the formats UPSC uses (statement-based, How many, Statement-I and II), each with the answer and an explanation. Try each one before you open the answer.
Punjab asks Centre to hold High Court Chief Justice appointment, citing MoP breach
Under Article 217(1) of the Constitution of India, the President must consult which of the following before appointing the Chief Justice of a High Court?
1. The Chief Justice of India
2. The Governor of the State
3. The Chief Justice of that High Court
4. The Chief Minister of the State
Select the correct answer using the code given below.- 1 and 2 only
- 1, 2 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 4 only
- 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. Article 217(1) names the Chief Justice of India and the Governor of the State for every High Court judge, and adds the Chief Justice of the High Court only for judges other than the Chief Justice. The Chief Minister is not named in the Constitution; the State government's views are sought under the Memorandum of Procedure, and the Governor acts on the advice of the State Council of Ministers.
Consider the following statements:
1. Article 217 requires the President to consult the Governor of the State before appointing a High Court judge.
2. The Memorandum of Procedure is a law passed by Parliament.
3. The Memorandum of Procedure fixes a 30-day limit for the State government to send its views.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (a) Only one. Statement 1 is correct: the Governor is named in Article 217(1). Statement 2 is incorrect: the MoP is an executive document agreed between the government and the judiciary, not a law. Statement 3 is incorrect: as reported in the Punjab case, the MoP lays down no time limit for the State's views.
Consider the following statements:
1. The First Judges Case (1981) held that consultation with the CJI did not mean concurrence.
2. The Second Judges Case (1993) gave primacy to the opinion of the CJI formed with senior judges.
3. The Third Judges Case (1998) arose from a Presidential reference.
4. The National Judicial Appointments Commission was struck down in 2015.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (d) All four. All four are correct. S.P. Gupta (1981) gave the executive primacy by reading consultation as not concurrence. The 1993 case reversed it. The 1998 opinion came on a reference under Article 143. The NJAC was struck down in October 2015.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Governors of both Punjab and Haryana have a consultative role in appointing judges of the Punjab and Haryana High Court.
Statement-II: Article 231 reads the reference to the Governor in Article 217 as a reference to the Governors of all the States over which a common High Court has jurisdiction.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. Statement-II is the reason for Statement-I: because the Punjab and Haryana High Court is a common High Court, Article 231(2) extends the Governor's consultative role to both States.
An Acting Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed under which Article of the Constitution?
- Article 222
- Article 223
- Article 224
- Article 226
Show answer
Answer: (b) Article 223. Article 223 lets the President appoint one of the judges to perform the duties of Chief Justice when the office is vacant. Article 222 covers transfers, Article 224 covers additional and acting judges (not the Chief Justice), and Article 226 gives High Courts the power to issue writs.
With reference to the appointment of a High Court Chief Justice, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The proposal is initiated by the Chief Justice of India with the two senior-most judges of the Supreme Court.
2. As a matter of policy, the Chief Justice is appointed from within the same State's High Court.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct: the High Court collegium for appointments consists of the CJI and the two senior-most Supreme Court judges. Statement 2 is incorrect: the MoP's policy is to appoint Chief Justices from outside the State.
Tribal Affairs Ministry says Forest Rights Act has no provision for gram sabha consent
Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, which one of the following is the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of forest rights?
- Gram Sabha
- Sub-Divisional Level Committee
- District Level Committee
- State Forest Department
Show answer
Answer: (a) Gram Sabha. Section 6(1) makes the Gram Sabha the authority to initiate the process by receiving claims and passing a resolution. The Sub-Divisional Level Committee examines the resolution, the District Level Committee gives final approval to the record of rights, and the Forest Department is not an authority for recognising rights under the Act, though forest officers sit on the Sub-Divisional and District Level Committees.
Consider the following statements about the Forest Rights Act, 2006:
1. The gram sabha is the authority to initiate the process of determining forest rights.
2. The District Level Committee gives final approval to the record of forest rights.
3. The State Forest Department gives final approval to community forest resource rights.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is correct under Section 6(1). Statement 2 is correct: the District Level Committee's decision on the record of rights is final. Statement 3 is incorrect: the Forest Department is not the approving authority; the District Level Committee, acting on the gram sabha's resolution, gives final approval, though forest officers sit on it.
Consider the following statements:
1. Parliament's Committee on Public Undertakings has 22 members.
2. A minister can be a member of the Committee on Public Undertakings.
3. The Committee on Public Undertakings recommended consent from 70 to 75% of affected gram sabhas for large hydropower projects of national importance.
4. The Public Accounts Committee and the Estimates Committee are Parliament's other two financial committees.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (c) Only three. Statement 1 is correct: 15 Lok Sabha and 7 Rajya Sabha members. Statement 2 is incorrect: ministers cannot be members. Statement 3 is correct, as reported on 7 September 2026. Statement 4 is correct.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Guidelines for forest diversion require a no-objection certificate from gram sabhas before forest land is formally diverted.
Statement-II: The Forest Rights Act, 2006 contains an express provision requiring gram sabha consent for Stage-II forest clearance.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. Statement-I is correct: guidelines under the Forest (Conservation) Act require FRA processes, including gram sabha certificates, before diversion. Statement-II is incorrect: the Ministry of Tribal Affairs says the FRA and its rules contain no provision for gram sabha consent for Stage-II clearance. The requirement grew from Environment Ministry guidelines, not the FRA's text.
The Niyamgiri hills, where gram sabhas rejected a bauxite mining project after a Supreme Court judgment in 2013, are located in which State?
- Chhattisgarh
- Jharkhand
- Odisha
- Andhra Pradesh
Show answer
Answer: (c) Odisha. The Niyamgiri hills are in the Rayagada and Kalahandi districts of Odisha and are home to the Dongria Kondh. The case was Orissa Mining Corporation v. Ministry of Environment and Forests (2013).
Under the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013, what consent of affected families is required when land is acquired for a public-private partnership project?
- 51%
- 70%
- 80%
- 100%
Show answer
Answer: (b) 70%. The 2013 Act requires the consent of at least 70% of affected families for public-private partnership projects and 80% for private companies. COPU's proposed 70 to 75% super-majority of gram sabhas is similar in spirit.
Ten years of inflation targeting: does the RBI's framework work in India?
With reference to the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the Reserve Bank of India, which of the following statements is correct?
- It has six members, of whom three are external members appointed by the Central Government
- It is chaired by the Union Finance Minister
- Its external members are appointed for one year and can be reappointed
- It sets the inflation target once every five years
Show answer
Answer: (a) It has six members, of whom three are external members appointed by the Central Government. The MPC has six members: the Governor (chair, with a casting vote), the Deputy Governor in charge of monetary policy, one RBI officer nominated by the Central Board, and three external members appointed by the Centre for four years without reappointment. The inflation target is set by the Central Government in consultation with the RBI under Section 45ZA, not by the MPC.
Consider the following statements about India's inflation targeting framework:
1. The inflation target is set by the Monetary Policy Committee.
2. The target is set once every five years.
3. The target is defined in terms of the Wholesale Price Index.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (a) Only one. Statement 1 is incorrect: the Central Government sets the target in consultation with the RBI under Section 45ZA. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect: the target uses the combined Consumer Price Index.
Consider the following statements about the Monetary Policy Committee:
1. It has six members.
2. Its external members are appointed by the Central Government for four years.
3. The Union Finance Minister chairs it.
4. The quorum for a meeting is four members.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (c) Only three. Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect: the RBI Governor chairs the MPC; the government has no member on it.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Hindu analysis argues that raising the repo rate may reduce output without effectively controlling inflation in India.
Statement-II: The analysis finds that India's New Keynesian Phillips Curve is almost flat.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct and linked: if output has little effect on inflation (a flat curve), then cutting demand through higher rates lowers output a lot for little disinflation, which is the article's warning.
In the Consumer Price Index series with base year 2024, what is the weight of food and beverages in the combined index?
- 45.86%
- 36.75%
- 54.18%
- 24.4%
Show answer
Answer: (b) 36.75%. The weight of food and beverages fell to 36.75% in the 2024-base series from 45.86% in the 2012-base series.
With reference to the inflation targeting framework, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The RBI sent its first report to the government on failing the target in November 2022.
2. Core inflation includes food and fuel prices.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct: inflation stayed above 6% for three consecutive quarters of 2022, and the RBI reported under Section 45ZN in November 2022. Statement 2 is incorrect: core inflation excludes food and fuel.
Bhutan first in WHO's South-East Asia Region to eliminate dog-mediated rabies
Consider the following statements about rabies:
1. It is caused by a bacterium transmitted mainly through dog bites.
2. It is almost always fatal once clinical symptoms appear.
3. It can be prevented by prompt post-exposure prophylaxis after a bite.
Which of the statements given above are correct?- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only. Statement 1 is incorrect: rabies is caused by a virus (genus Lyssavirus), though dogs are indeed the main source of human infection. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct: wound washing, vaccination and, where needed, rabies immunoglobulin given promptly prevent the disease.
Consider the following statements:
1. Bhutan is the first country in WHO's South-East Asia Region to have its elimination of dog-transmitted rabies as a public health problem validated by WHO.
2. Bhutan recorded its last human rabies death in June 2023.
3. Bhutan's strategy relied on removing all stray dogs from public places.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct as reported. Statement 3 is incorrect: Bhutan relied on mass dog vaccination, dog population management, awareness and access to post-exposure prophylaxis, not removal of all dogs.
Consider the following about post-exposure prophylaxis for rabies:
1. Immediate washing of the wound with soap and water.
2. A course of rabies vaccine.
3. Rabies immunoglobulin for severe exposures.
4. Antibiotics as the main treatment to kill the rabies virus.
How many of the above are part of standard rabies post-exposure prophylaxis?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (c) Only three. Wound washing, vaccination and, for severe exposures, rabies immunoglobulin are the components of PEP. Antibiotics do not act on viruses, so item 4 is not part of rabies PEP.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Vaccinating dogs is central to preventing human rabies deaths.
Statement-II: Dogs are the source of the great majority of human rabies infections.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct and linked: because dogs transmit most human rabies, stopping the virus among dogs through vaccination cuts off the main route of human infection. This is the logic of the One Health approach Bhutan used.
The 'Zero by 30' global strategic plan was launched by WHO together with which of the following?
1. Food and Agriculture Organization
2. World Organisation for Animal Health
3. Global Alliance for Rabies Control
Select the correct answer using the code given below.- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3. The 2018 plan was launched by WHO, the Food and Agriculture Organization, the World Organisation for Animal Health and the Global Alliance for Rabies Control, working together as 'United Against Rabies'.
In India, the sterilisation and vaccination of street dogs is regulated by which of the following?
- Animal Birth Control Rules, 2023
- Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972
- Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897
- Biological Diversity Act, 2002
Show answer
Answer: (a) Animal Birth Control Rules, 2023. The Animal Birth Control Rules, 2023, framed under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960, govern sterilisation and anti-rabies vaccination of street dogs. The other laws deal with wildlife, epidemics and biodiversity.
Rajghat finds from decades-old digs shed new light on ancient Kashi
Rajghat, an archaeological site identified with the capital of the ancient Kashi Mahajanapada, is located at the confluence of which rivers?
- Ganga and Varuna
- Ganga and Yamuna
- Ganga and Son
- Ganga and Ghaghara
Show answer
Answer: (a) Ganga and Varuna. Rajghat lies in Varanasi where the Varuna (Varana) joins the Ganga. The Ganga-Yamuna confluence is at Prayagraj, the Son joins the Ganga near Patna, and the Ghaghara joins it downstream of Chhapra, in Bihar.
Consider the following statements about Rajghat:
1. It was first excavated on a trial basis in 1940 for the Archaeological Survey of India.
2. Banaras Hindu University carried out major excavations there between 1957 and 1969.
3. Its oldest layers date to the Harappan period.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct: Krishna Deva's trial dig for the ASI was in 1940 and BHU's main excavations ran from 1957 to 1969. Statement 3 is incorrect: the oldest layers date to about 800 BCE, well after the Harappan period.
Consider the following:
1. Kashi
2. Kosala
3. Avanti
4. Pataliputra
How many of the above were among the sixteen Mahajanapadas?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (c) Only three. Kashi, Kosala and Avanti were Mahajanapadas. Pataliputra was a city, the later capital of Magadha, not a Mahajanapada.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Rajghat's oldest cultural layers are dated to about 800 BCE.
Statement-II: Pottery from these layers is older than Northern Black Polished Ware.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct, and the second explains the first: the presence of pottery predating NBPW (which begins around 700 BCE) is the evidence used to date the oldest layers to about 800 BCE.
With reference to punch-marked coins, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. They were mostly made of silver.
2. They were struck with a single die bearing the ruler's portrait and name.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect: symbols were punched one at a time, and the coins carry no portraits or names of rulers; those appear later, for example on Indo-Greek coins.
Northern Black Polished Ware is most closely associated with which phase of Indian history?
- The Harappan civilisation
- The Chalcolithic cultures of the Deccan
- The Mahajanapadas and the second urbanisation
- The Gupta period
Show answer
Answer: (c) The Mahajanapadas and the second urbanisation. NBPW, dated to about 700 to 200 BCE, peaks with the Mahajanapadas and the rise of the Mauryas, the period of the second urbanisation of the Ganga plain.