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UPSC current affairs quiz, 10 September 2026

30 Prelims-style questions on the day's news, in the formats UPSC uses (statement-based, How many, Statement-I and II), each with the answer and an explanation. Try each one before you open the answer.

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IAEA Board reports Iran to the UN Security Council, first time in 20 years

  1. Which organ of the International Atomic Energy Agency reports a state's non-compliance with its safeguards obligations to the UN Security Council?

    1. The General Conference
    2. The Board of Governors
    3. The Committee on Assurance of Supply
    4. The UN Disarmament Commission
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) The Board of Governors. The Board of Governors approves safeguards agreements and reports non-compliance to the Security Council; it did so for Iran in September 2026. The General Conference of all members meets annually on budgets and broad policy. The other two options are not IAEA organs with this power; the UN Disarmament Commission is a General Assembly body.

  2. Consider the following statements:
    1. The IAEA reports to both the UN General Assembly and the UN Security Council.
    2. The General Conference of the IAEA consists of 35 member states.
    3. The IAEA and its Director General Mohamed ElBaradei were awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2005.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is correct: the IAEA is autonomous but reports to both bodies. Statement 2 is wrong: the General Conference includes all member states; it is the Board of Governors that has 35 members. Statement 3 is correct: the IAEA and ElBaradei shared the 2005 Nobel Peace Prize. So two are correct.

  3. Consider the following statements about the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT):
    1. It entered into force in 1970.
    2. It recognises as nuclear-weapon states those that exploded a nuclear device before 1 January 1967.
    3. India signed the treaty but did not ratify it.
    4. North Korea is the only state to have withdrawn from it.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Statement 1 is correct: it opened for signature in 1968 and entered into force in 1970. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is wrong: India never joined the NPT at all, neither signing nor ratifying. Statement 4 is correct: North Korea withdrew in 2003. So three are correct.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Concrete action by the UN Security Council on the IAEA's September 2026 referral of Iran is considered unlikely.
    Statement-II: Russia and China, which voted against the referral at the IAEA Board, are permanent members of the Security Council whose concurring votes are needed for substantive decisions.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. Under Article 27 of the UN Charter, substantive decisions need nine votes including the concurring votes of the permanent members, so opposition from Russia or China can block any resolution. That is why Council action is unlikely, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.

  5. Which of the following measures can the UN Security Council take under Article 41 of the UN Charter?
    1. Complete or partial interruption of economic relations
    2. Severance of diplomatic relations
    3. Blockade by sea forces of member states
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only. Article 41 covers measures not involving armed force, such as interrupting economic relations and communications and severing diplomatic relations. Blockades and other operations by air, sea or land forces fall under Article 42. So 1 and 2 only.

  6. Which one of the following correctly describes IAEA safeguards?

    1. Security guarantees given by nuclear-weapon states to non-nuclear states
    2. A fund that compensates victims of nuclear accidents
    3. Verification measures, including inspections and material accounting, to confirm that nuclear material is not diverted to weapons
    4. Export controls agreed by nuclear supplier countries
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Verification measures, including inspections and material accounting, to confirm that nuclear material is not diverted to weapons. Safeguards are the IAEA's verification system: states declare their nuclear material and facilities and inspectors check the declarations. Security guarantees, compensation funds and supplier export controls are separate arrangements.

India and Sri Lanka sign three defence MoUs during Rajnath Singh's visit

  1. 'SLINEX' and 'Mitra Shakti', sometimes seen in the news, are respectively:

    1. India-Sri Lanka naval and army exercises
    2. India-Sri Lanka army and naval exercises
    3. India-Maldives coast guard and air force exercises
    4. India-Sri Lanka air force and coast guard exercises
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) India-Sri Lanka naval and army exercises. SLINEX is the bilateral naval exercise between India and Sri Lanka, and Mitra Shakti is their bilateral army exercise. Both were cited as pillars of defence ties during the September 2026 visit.

  2. Consider the following statements about the defence MoUs signed by India and Sri Lanka in September 2026:
    1. One MoU provides for upgrading six L70 anti-aircraft guns of the Sri Lanka Air Force under an Indian grant.
    2. One MoU provides for the lease of a Sri Lankan port to the Indian Navy.
    3. One MoU covers cooperation between the National Cadet Corps of the two countries.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: no port lease was signed; the third MoU covers the National Defence Colleges. Statement 3 is correct. So two are correct.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    1. SLINEX is a bilateral naval exercise between India and Sri Lanka.
    2. Mitra Shakti is a bilateral air force exercise between India and Sri Lanka.
    3. India provides about 1,200 training slots a year to the Sri Lankan armed forces.
    4. India funded a Maritime Rescue Coordination Centre in Sri Lanka with a US$6 million grant.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct. Statement 2 is wrong: Mitra Shakti is the bilateral army exercise, not an air force exercise. So three are correct.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: The September 2026 visit of India's Defence Minister to Sri Lanka was described as the first such visit in 38 years.
    Statement-II: Sri Lanka's President assured that Sri Lankan territory would not be used for activities inimical to India's security interests.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I. Both statements are correct as reported. But the assurance given during the visit does not explain why no Defence Minister had visited for 38 years, so Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.

  5. With reference to Katchatheevu, consider the following statements:
    1. It lies in the Palk Strait between Rameswaram and Neduntheevu.
    2. It was accepted as Sri Lankan territory under a maritime agreement of 1974.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct. The islet lies between Rameswaram in India and Neduntheevu in Sri Lanka, and India accepted it as Sri Lankan territory under the 1974 agreement; a 1976 agreement restricted fishing in each other's waters.

  6. The Bailey bridges inaugurated during the September 2026 visit were built to restore connectivity damaged by which event?

    1. The 2004 Indian Ocean tsunami
    2. The 2022 economic crisis
    3. The Easter Sunday attacks of 2019
    4. Cyclone Ditwah
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) Cyclone Ditwah. The three Bailey bridges in Kurunegala and Batticaloa districts restored links cut by Cyclone Ditwah, as part of India's Operation Sagar Bandhu.

Producer prices and double deflation: what changed in India's new GDP series

  1. In national income accounting, 'double deflation' refers to:

    1. Deflating GDP first by the CPI and then again by the WPI
    2. Separately deflating output and intermediate consumption with their own price indices to obtain real value added
    3. Adjusting GDP for both inflation and exchange-rate changes
    4. Removing both product taxes and product subsidies from GDP
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Separately deflating output and intermediate consumption with their own price indices to obtain real value added. Double deflation deflates output with an output price index and inputs with an input price index; real value added is the difference. India's new series applies it to manufacturing using Producer Price Indices. The other options describe unrelated adjustments.

  2. Consider the following statements about India's new GDP series:
    1. Its base year is 2022-23.
    2. It was released on 27 February 2026.
    3. It applies a single CPI-based deflator to value added in manufacturing.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: the new series uses double deflation for manufacturing, deflating output and intermediate consumption separately with Producer Price Indices. So two are correct.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    1. The Producer Price Index excludes indirect taxes.
    2. The Wholesale Price Index captures changes in the prices of services.
    3. The GDP deflator is based on a fixed basket of consumer goods.
    4. Gross Value Added equals output minus intermediate consumption.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the WPI covers goods, not services. Statement 3 is wrong: the GDP deflator has no fixed basket; it is the ratio of nominal to real GDP and covers all domestic output. Statement 4 is correct. So two are correct.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Under double deflation, real value added in a sector can grow faster than nominal value added.
    Statement-II: Under double deflation, output and intermediate consumption are deflated separately, so a faster rise in input prices shrinks real inputs more than real output.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct, and Statement-II gives the reason. When input prices rise faster than output prices, deflating inputs by the larger index reduces real inputs more, so real value added rises faster than nominal value added and the implied deflator turns negative.

  5. In April to June 2026, nominal GDP grew 10.3% and real GDP 7.8%. What does this imply?

    1. Consumer prices fell during the quarter
    2. The implied GDP deflator rose by only about 2.3%
    3. Real GDP was larger than nominal GDP
    4. Product subsidies exceeded product taxes
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) The implied GDP deflator rose by only about 2.3%. The implied deflator is the ratio of nominal to real GDP; 1.103 divided by 1.078 is about 1.023, a rise of about 2.3%. The figures say nothing directly about consumer prices falling, the level of real versus nominal GDP, or the balance of taxes and subsidies.

  6. Which of the following data sources are used in India's new GDP series, as described by MoSPI?
    1. Goods and Services Tax (GST) data
    2. Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS)
    3. Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises (ASUSE)
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3. All three are used. MoSPI says the new series integrates GST data, PLFS and ASUSE, and uses direct ASUSE and PLFS figures rather than proxies for the informal sector.

Open waste burning in Indian cities triples in winter, finds WRI India study

  1. Why does smoke from ground-level sources such as open waste burning tend to stay close to the ground in north Indian cities on winter nights?

    1. Because humidity converts all smoke particles into rain
    2. Because strong winter winds push smoke downwards
    3. Because a layer of warmer air above cooler surface air suppresses vertical mixing
    4. Because the ozone layer is thinner in winter
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Because a layer of warmer air above cooler surface air suppresses vertical mixing. On clear winter nights the ground loses heat by radiation, cooling the air next to it while warmer air remains above. This temperature inversion stops pollutants from rising and dispersing. The other options do not describe the mechanism.

  2. Consider the following statements about the WRI India study on open waste burning:
    1. It covered 11 polluted Indian cities from 2019 to 2026.
    2. It found that open waste burning is the largest source of citywide PM2.5 emissions.
    3. It found a strong association between higher burning incidence and poorer socio-economic areas.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is wrong: open waste burning contributes less than 1% of citywide PM2.5 and PM10 emissions, though it raises short-term exposure nearby. So two are correct.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    1. PM2.5 refers to particles with a diameter of 2.5 micrometres or less.
    2. PM2.5 particles can reach the alveoli of the lungs.
    3. The WHO 2021 guidelines set an annual mean limit of 15 µg/m3 for PM2.5.
    4. Some fine particles can cross into the bloodstream.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: the WHO 2021 annual guideline for PM2.5 is 5 µg/m3; 15 µg/m3 is the 24-hour guideline. So three are correct.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Smoke from burning waste in Indian cities tends to stay close to the ground on winter nights.
    Statement-II: On clear winter nights the ground loses heat quickly, creating a layer of warmer air above cooler surface air that suppresses vertical mixing.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. The temperature inversion described in Statement-II acts as a lid that stops smoke from rising and dispersing.

  5. Which of the following are released when mixed urban waste is burned in the open?
    1. Dioxins
    2. Furans
    3. Heavy metals
    4. Volatile organic compounds
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 3 and 4 only
    3. 1, 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4. The study lists all four: dioxins, furans, heavy metals and volatile organic compounds, which cause respiratory and heart disease and raise cancer risks.

  6. According to the WRI India study as reported, which areas recorded the highest incidence of open waste burning?

    1. Central business districts of Tier 1 cities
    2. Poorer areas of Tier 2 cities
    3. Industrial estates of Tier 3 cities
    4. Peri-urban farmland around Tier 1 cities
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Poorer areas of Tier 2 cities. Poorer areas in Tier 2 cities recorded nearly 84 incidents per square kilometre per day, the highest in the study. Tier 3 cities had the highest winter average, at 49.6.

Op-ed: Warning labels alone will not fix India's sugar problem

  1. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) functions under which of the following?

    1. Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution
    2. Ministry of Food Processing Industries
    3. Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
    4. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. FSSAI, a statutory body set up under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, is administered by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. The other ministries deal with consumer protection, food processing and agriculture.

  2. Consider the following statements about the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI):
    1. It was established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006.
    2. It functions under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution.
    3. It regulates the manufacture, storage, distribution, sale and import of food.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is wrong: FSSAI is administered by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. So two are correct.

  3. Consider the following statements about the UK's Soft Drinks Industry Levy:
    1. It came into force on 6 April 2018.
    2. It charges a higher rate on drinks with more than 8 g of sugar per 100 ml than on drinks with 5 g to 8 g.
    3. Pure fruit juices and milk-based drinks are exempt.
    4. It is levied as a flat percentage of the retail price.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct: the levy is 24p per litre above 8 g and 18p per litre above 5 g per 100 ml, with exemptions for pure fruit juices, milk-based drinks and the smallest producers. Statement 4 is wrong: it is a per-litre charge in tiers by sugar content, not a percentage of price. So three are correct.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: The op-ed argues that India's GST on sweetened beverages does not encourage manufacturers to reduce sugar.
    Statement-II: Since September 2025, India's GST applies a flat 40% rate to sweetened beverages regardless of their sugar content.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct, and Statement-II is the reason for Statement-I: because the rate is the same whatever the sugar content, a manufacturer gains nothing in tax by cutting sugar, unlike under a tiered levy.

  5. The 'double trigger' in a front-of-pack labelling proposal means that:

    1. A product carries two separate labels, one on the front and one on the back
    2. A product is flagged only if it is high in at least two nutrients of concern
    3. Both the manufacturer and the retailer must display the warning
    4. The label must be approved by two regulators
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) A product is flagged only if it is high in at least two nutrients of concern. The op-ed criticises FSSAI's initial proposal for a double trigger, under which a product must be high in at least two unhealthy nutrients before it gets a warning, so products high in only sugar could escape.

  6. With reference to front-of-pack warning labels proposed for India, consider the following statements:
    1. They are meant for packaged foods high in fat, salt or sugar.
    2. They would automatically apply to street stalls and sweet shops.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the labels target packaged foods, and the op-ed points out that the unorganised sector, such as street stalls and sweet shops, makes no nutrition declarations and would stay outside.