Pratidin

UPSC current affairs quiz, 11 September 2026

54 Prelims-style questions on the day's news, in the formats UPSC uses (statement-based, How many, Statement-I and II), each with the answer and an explanation. Try each one before you open the answer.

Read 11 September 2026 first10 September 2026 quiz12 September 2026 quizTimed test in the app

How should registered unrecognised political parties be regulated?

  1. With reference to Registered Unrecognised Political Parties (RUPPs) in India, which one of the following statements is correct?

    1. They are registered under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and can name up to 20 star campaigners.
    2. They are registered under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 and each gets a reserved symbol.
    3. The Representation of the People Act, 1951 empowers the Election Commission to de-register any RUPP that does not contest for six years.
    4. They are not required to report any donations to the Election Commission.
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) They are registered under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and can name up to 20 star campaigners.. Registration is under Section 29A of the RPA, and unrecognised parties may name up to 20 star campaigners (recognised parties 40). The Symbols Order governs recognition and symbols; reserved symbols go only to recognised parties. The RPA has no express de-registration power, as the Supreme Court held in 2002. Registered parties must report donations above ₹20,000 to the Election Commission.

  2. Consider the following statements:
    1. The Representation of the People Act, 1951 expressly empowers the Election Commission to de-register a party that has not contested elections for ten consecutive years.
    2. A registered unrecognised political party may name up to 20 star campaigners.
    3. Registered parties must report to the Election Commission contributions above ₹20,000 received from a donor in a financial year.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is incorrect: the ten-year rule is a Law Commission (255th Report) proposal; the Act has no de-registration power. Statement 2 is correct: unrecognised parties get 20 star campaigners, recognised parties 40. Statement 3 is correct: donors above ₹20,000 must be reported annually.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    1. A party that wins at least 6% of valid votes in a State Assembly election and two seats there qualifies for recognition as a State party.
    2. A party recognised as a State party in four States qualifies as a national party.
    3. The criteria for recognition are laid down in the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968.
    4. Section 29A was inserted into the Representation of the People Act by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct recognition rules under the Symbols Order, 1968. Statement 4 is incorrect: Section 29A was added to the RPA by an ordinary amendment to the Act in 1989; the 52nd Constitutional Amendment (1985) is the anti-defection law.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: The Election Commission of India cannot de-register a registered political party merely because the party has become inactive.
    Statement-II: In Indian National Congress v. Institute of Social Welfare (2002), the Supreme Court held that the Representation of the People Act gives the Election Commission no general power to de-register a party.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. Because the 2002 judgment found no general de-registration power in the Act (Statement-II), the EC cannot strike off a party for inactivity alone (Statement-I) and has instead delisted inactive parties. Statement-II explains Statement-I.

  5. Consider the following statements:
    1. An Association for Democratic Reforms report of July 2025 found 2022-23 annual reports publicly available for only 26% of registered unrecognised parties.
    2. A political party may accept a cash donation of ₹10,000 from a single donor.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct as reported. Statement 2 is incorrect: cash donations above ₹2,000 are not allowed; larger donations must come by cheque or bank transfer.

  6. Which report of the Law Commission of India recommended that a political party failing to contest elections for ten consecutive years be de-registered?

    1. 244th Report
    2. 255th Report
    3. 262nd Report
    4. 267th Report
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 255th Report. The 255th Report on electoral reforms made this recommendation. The 244th dealt with electoral disqualifications, the 262nd with the death penalty and the 267th with hate speech.

NSO releases first district-level estimates of the unincorporated non-farm sector

  1. The Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises (ASUSE), recently in the news for district-level estimates, covers which of the following?

    1. Unincorporated non-agricultural establishments in manufacturing, trade and other services, including proprietorships, partnerships other than LLPs, cooperatives and trusts
    2. Only companies registered under the Companies Act, 2013
    3. Farm and non-farm household enterprises, including crop cultivation
    4. Only enterprises registered on the Udyam portal
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Unincorporated non-agricultural establishments in manufacturing, trade and other services, including proprietorships, partnerships other than LLPs, cooperatives and trusts. ASUSE surveys unincorporated non-agricultural establishments in manufacturing, trade and other services. It covers proprietorships, partnerships (excluding limited liability partnerships), cooperatives and societies or trusts. It excludes companies and agriculture, and does not depend on Udyam registration.

  2. Consider the following statements about the ASUSE 2025 district-level estimates:
    1. They cover 757 districts.
    2. The all-India GVA per worker in the sector is above ₹2 lakh.
    3. Lakshadweep, Chandigarh and Delhi were treated differently from other areas in the district-level estimates.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect: the figure is ₹1,56,539. Statement 3 is correct: these three were treated differently because of sampling design or existing UT-level data.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    1. Gross Value Added is the value of output minus the value of intermediate consumption.
    2. GDP equals GVA at basic prices plus product taxes minus product subsidies.
    3. The National Statistics Office was formed by merging the Central Statistics Office and the National Sample Survey Office.
    4. Limited liability partnerships are included in ASUSE's coverage of partnerships.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Statement 4 is incorrect: ASUSE covers partnerships but excludes limited liability partnerships.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: The ASUSE 2025 district estimates show Nirmal district of Telangana with the highest share of women among workers in the unincorporated non-agricultural sector.
    Statement-II: Women account for more than half of the workers in this sector at the all-India level.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. Statement-I is correct: Nirmal is at 78%. Statement-II is incorrect: the all-India share of women is 29%.

  5. Consider the following statements:
    1. The top 10 districts account for roughly one-tenth of the sector's establishments, workers and GVA.
    2. Rudraprayag in Uttarakhand has the highest share of women workers in the sector.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect: Rudraprayag has the lowest share (6.7%); Nirmal has the highest (78%).

  6. According to the ASUSE 2025 district estimates, the all-India share of women among workers in the unincorporated non-agricultural sector is closest to:

    1. 6.7%
    2. 29%
    3. 50%
    4. 78%
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 29%. The all-India average is 29%. 6.7% is Rudraprayag's share and 78% is Nirmal's.

Bihar floods despite a 27% rain deficit, and the Ganga, not Nepal, is behind it

  1. With reference to the Farakka Barrage, which one of the following is correct?

    1. It is in Murshidabad district of West Bengal and was built mainly to divert Ganga water into the Hooghly to keep Kolkata port navigable.
    2. It is in Bhagalpur district of Bihar and was built mainly to control floods of the Kosi.
    3. It is in Malda district of West Bengal and was built mainly for hydroelectric power.
    4. It is on the Brahmaputra and regulates water sharing with Bangladesh.
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) It is in Murshidabad district of West Bengal and was built mainly to divert Ganga water into the Hooghly to keep Kolkata port navigable.. The Farakka Barrage stands across the Ganga in Murshidabad district, West Bengal. It became operational in 1975 and diverts water through a feeder canal into the Bhagirathi-Hooghly to flush silt from Kolkata port. It is not a Kosi flood-control or hydropower project, and it is on the Ganga, not the Brahmaputra.

  2. Consider the following statements:
    1. The Farakka Barrage is located in Murshidabad district of West Bengal.
    2. The India-Bangladesh Ganga water treaty was signed in 1996 for a period of 30 years.
    3. The Ganga water treaty was signed by Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect: the treaty was signed on 12 December 1996 by H.D. Deve Gowda and Sheikh Hasina.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    1. The Kosi, Gandak and Bagmati flow into Bihar from Nepal.
    2. The Punpun joins the Ganga from the south.
    3. Heavy rain around Allahabad and Varanasi contributed to the Ganga's rise in 2026.
    4. In the 2026 Bihar floods, the Nepal-fed rivers rose before the Ganga.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Statement 4 is incorrect: in 2026 the Ganga rose first, unlike most years when the Nepal-fed rivers swell first.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: A river can flood areas along its tributaries even when local rainfall is below normal.
    Statement-II: A high water level in a main river slows or blocks the outflow of its tributaries, causing water to back up.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct, and Statement-II (the backwater effect) explains Statement-I, as seen in Bihar in 2026 when a high Ganga stopped tributaries like the Gandak and Punpun from draining.

  5. Consider the following statements:
    1. The Farakka Barrage was built mainly to generate hydroelectric power.
    2. A feeder canal from the Farakka Barrage carries Ganga water towards the Hooghly.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2 only. Statement 1 is incorrect: the barrage's main purpose is to divert water to the Hooghly and flush silt from Kolkata port. Statement 2 is correct.

  6. Under the 1996 India-Bangladesh Ganga water treaty, when the flow at Farakka is 70,000 cusecs or less, the water is shared:

    1. Equally between the two countries
    2. 40,000 cusecs to India and the balance to Bangladesh
    3. 35,000 cusecs to Bangladesh and the balance to India
    4. 60% to India and 40% to Bangladesh
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Equally between the two countries. At 70,000 cusecs or less, each side gets 50%. Between 70,000 and 75,000 cusecs Bangladesh gets 35,000 cusecs; at 75,000 cusecs or more India gets 40,000 cusecs.

Editorial: What the U.S.-Canada trade rupture teaches India

  1. The United States-Mexico-Canada Agreement (USMCA), which replaced the North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA), entered into force in:

    1. 1994
    2. 2001
    3. 2018
    4. 2020
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) 2020. The USMCA entered into force on 1 July 2020. NAFTA came into force on 1 January 1994. The 2001 date is when the Canada-U.S. Auto Pact was abolished after a WTO ruling, and 2018 is when the USMCA was negotiated and signed, not when it took effect.

  2. Consider the following statements:
    1. The Canada-U.S. Auto Pact was signed in 1965.
    2. NAFTA came into force on 1 January 1994.
    3. The Canada-U.S. Free Trade Agreement came into force after NAFTA.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect: the Canada-U.S. FTA came into force on 1 January 1989 and was superseded by NAFTA in 1994.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    1. The most-favoured-nation principle is set out in Article I of GATT.
    2. Free trade areas are permitted under Article XXIV of GATT as an exception to MFN.
    3. Members of a free trade area must adopt a common external tariff.
    4. The USMCA has a 16-year term with a joint review every six years.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect: a common external tariff is the mark of a customs union; FTA members keep their own tariffs on outsiders.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Because the U.S. announced in July 2026 that it would not renew the USMCA, the agreement ended immediately.
    Statement-II: Under its review clause, the USMCA continues for its 16-year term, with annual reviews if the parties do not confirm an extension.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct. Statement-I is incorrect: non-renewal does not end the pact at once. Statement-II is correct: it continues with annual reviews until it expires on 1 July 2036.

  5. Consider the following statements:
    1. In a free trade area, member countries keep a common tariff on imports from non-members.
    2. The Canada-U.S. Free Trade Agreement was signed in January 1988 and came into force in January 1989.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2 only. Statement 1 is incorrect: that describes a customs union. Statement 2 is correct: it was signed on 2 January 1988 and came into force on 1 January 1989.

  6. According to The Hindu's editorial 'Rude lessons', India accepted a tariff arrangement with the U.S. in February 2026 at what rate?

    1. 10%
    2. 15%
    3. 18%
    4. 25%
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 18%. The editorial refers to an 18% tariff arrangement in February 2026, followed by U.S. investigations into forced labour and excess capacity.

Mercury may have shrunk by up to 23 km in diameter, about 30% more than thought

  1. BepiColombo, which is expected to enter orbit around Mercury in November 2026, is a joint mission of:

    1. NASA and ESA
    2. ESA and JAXA
    3. ISRO and JAXA
    4. NASA and JAXA
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) ESA and JAXA. BepiColombo is a joint mission of the European Space Agency and the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency. ESA built the Mercury Planetary Orbiter and JAXA built Mio (the Mercury Magnetospheric Orbiter). NASA's earlier Mercury missions were Mariner 10 and MESSENGER.

  2. Consider the following statements about Mercury:
    1. It is the smallest planet in the Solar System.
    2. It takes about 88 Earth days to orbit the Sun.
    3. Its core occupies a smaller share of its volume than Earth's core does of Earth's volume.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect: Mercury's core fills about 57% of its volume, against about 17% for Earth.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    1. Mariner 10 was the first spacecraft to visit Mercury.
    2. MESSENGER entered orbit around Mercury in 2011.
    3. MESSENGER ended its mission by crashing onto Mercury in 2015.
    4. BepiColombo entered orbit around Mercury in 2025.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Statement 4 is incorrect: BepiColombo made flybys up to January 2025 and is expected to enter orbit in November 2026.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Mercury's surface is marked by long cliff-like ridges called lobate scarps.
    Statement-II: As Mercury's interior cools and contracts, its crust is compressed and breaks along thrust faults.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I: contraction compresses the crust, which fails along thrust faults that appear as lobate scarps.

  5. Consider the following statements about BepiColombo:
    1. Its Mercury Planetary Orbiter was built by ESA and its Mio orbiter by JAXA.
    2. Its arrival at Mercury was brought forward after a thruster upgrade in 2024.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect: a thruster problem reported in May 2024 lengthened the cruise, and orbit insertion is expected in November 2026.

  6. The new estimate that Mercury has shrunk by up to 23 km in diameter was based mainly on data from which spacecraft?

    1. Mariner 10
    2. MESSENGER
    3. BepiColombo
    4. Parker Solar Probe
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) MESSENGER. The study used data from NASA's MESSENGER, which orbited Mercury from 2011 to 2015. Mariner 10 only flew past, BepiColombo has not yet entered orbit, and Parker Solar Probe studies the Sun.

Centre launches DILRMP 3.0 guidelines for a GIS-based land records system, 2026-31

  1. With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme (DILRMP), consider the following statements:
    1. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with a 60:40 Centre-State funding pattern.
    2. Its nodal department is the Department of Land Resources.
    3. Under it, each land parcel gets a 14-digit Unique Land Parcel Identification Number.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only. 1 is wrong: DILRMP has been a Central Sector Scheme with 100% central funding since 2016. 2 is correct: DoLR in the Ministry of Rural Development. 3 is correct: ULPIN or Bhu-Aadhaar is a 14-digit ID.

  2. Consider the following statements about DILRMP 3.0:
    1. It covers the period 2026 to 2031.
    2. Funds will be released to States linked to performance.
    3. It is implemented by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. 1 and 2 are correct. 3 is wrong: the nodal body is the Department of Land Resources in the Ministry of Rural Development. Two statements are correct.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: The success of DILRMP depends heavily on State governments.
    Statement-II: 'Land' is an entry in the State List of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct and II explains I: because land (Entry 18) and land revenue (Entry 45) are in List II, States maintain land records and their revenue machinery must carry out the programme even though the Centre funds it.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    1. Under NAKSHA, urban land is surveyed using drones and satellite-based positioning.
    2. The Survey of India is the technical partner of NAKSHA.
    3. NAKSHA is implemented by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs alone.
    4. The NAKSHA pilot covers urban local bodies in both States and Union Territories.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. 1, 2 and 4 are correct: NAKSHA uses GNSS, electronic total stations and drone surveys; Survey of India is the technical partner; the pilot covers 157 urban local bodies in 27 States and 3 UTs. 3 is wrong: the Department of Land Resources implements it. Three statements are correct.

  5. The Unique Land Parcel Identification Number (ULPIN) consists of how many characters?

    1. 10
    2. 12
    3. 14
    4. 16
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 14. ULPIN, called Bhu-Aadhaar, is a 14-digit identification number for each geo-referenced land parcel.

  6. With reference to Central Sector Schemes, consider the following statements:
    1. They are fully funded by the Union Government.
    2. DILRMP is an example of a Central Sector Scheme.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct. Central Sector Schemes carry 100% central funding, and DILRMP has been one since 2016. Centrally Sponsored Schemes, by contrast, share costs with States.

Houthis seize Yemen's Red Sea port of Mokha, close to the Bab el-Mandeb Strait

  1. Consider the following countries:
    1. Yemen
    2. Djibouti
    3. Eritrea
    4. Somalia
    Which of the above countries border the Bab el-Mandeb Strait?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 1, 2 and 3 only
    3. 2, 3 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 3 only. The Bab el-Mandeb has Yemen on the Arabian side and Djibouti and Eritrea on the African side. Somalia lies on the Gulf of Aden and the Indian Ocean, not on the strait itself.

  2. Consider the following statements about the Bab el-Mandeb Strait:
    1. It connects the Red Sea with the Gulf of Aden.
    2. It is about 26 km wide at its narrowest point.
    3. Oman lies on its eastern shore.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. 1 is correct: it links the Red Sea to the Gulf of Aden and the Indian Ocean. 2 is correct: about 26 km at the narrowest. 3 is wrong: Yemen lies on the eastern (Arabian) shore, with Djibouti and Eritrea on the African shore. Two statements are correct.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Houthi control of Yemen's Red Sea coast near Mokha raises concern for global shipping.
    Statement-II: Mokha is the first port north of the Bab el-Mandeb, a chokepoint that ships bound for the Suez Canal must pass.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct and II explains I: the port's closeness to the strait through which Suez-bound traffic must pass is why its capture worries shipping.

  4. Consider the following events:
    1. Houthis seize Sana'a.
    2. Saudi-led coalition intervenes in Yemen.
    3. UN-brokered nationwide truce begins.
    4. Operation Prosperity Guardian is launched.
    How many of these events took place before 2020?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Sana'a fell in September 2014 and the coalition intervened in March 2015, both before 2020. The truce began on 2 April 2022 and Operation Prosperity Guardian on 18 December 2023. Two events took place before 2020.

  5. With reference to the Houthi movement, consider the following statements:
    1. It is a Zaidi Shia political and armed movement from Yemen.
    2. It is formally called Ansar Allah.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct. The Houthis, formally Ansar Allah, are a Zaidi Shia movement that emerged in northern Yemen in the 1990s.

  6. The city of Mokha, often in the news, is historically known for which of the following?

    1. Pearl diving
    2. Frankincense cultivation
    3. The coffee trade
    4. Salt pans
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) The coffee trade. Mokha was the principal market for Arabian coffee from the 16th to the 19th century and gave its name to mocha coffee.

Op-ed: Fast growth, weak jobs and India's risk of a middle-income trap

  1. With reference to the World Bank's World Development Report 2024, consider the following statements:
    1. Its theme was the middle-income trap.
    2. It proposed a '3i' strategy of investment, infusion and innovation.
    3. It found that more than 100 middle-income economies have become high-income since 1990.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. 1 and 2 are correct. 3 is wrong: the report found that only 34 middle-income economies have made the transition to high income since 1990. There are 108 middle-income countries in all.

  2. Consider the following statements about the World Development Report 2024:
    1. It was published by the International Monetary Fund.
    2. It defined middle-income countries as those with GDP per capita between about $1,136 and $13,845.
    3. It estimated that India would take 75 years to reach a quarter of U.S. per capita income.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. 1 is wrong: the World Development Report is published by the World Bank. 2 and 3 are correct. Two statements are correct.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Middle-income countries can find it hard to keep growing once wages rise.
    Statement-II: Rising wages erode their cost advantage over poorer countries before they can compete with richer countries on technology.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct and II explains I: this 'double squeeze' is the core mechanism of the middle-income trap.

  4. Arrange the phases of the World Bank's '3i' strategy in the order in which a growing economy should adopt them:
    1. Investment, infusion and innovation
    2. Investment only
    3. Investment and infusion
    Select the correct order:

    1. 1-2-3
    2. 2-3-1
    3. 3-2-1
    4. 2-1-3
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2-3-1. Low-income countries focus on investment (1i), lower-middle-income countries add infusion of foreign technology (2i), and upper-middle-income countries add innovation (3i).

  5. Consider the following statements about India's economy:
    1. Manufacturing's share of GVA has stayed at about 14% to 17% for over two decades.
    2. Agriculture employs more than 45% of workers.
    3. More than 20% of the workforce has formal vocational training.
    4. GERD is about 0.64% of GDP.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. 3 is wrong: less than 3% of the workforce has formal vocational training. Three statements are correct.

  6. Which of the following economies is usually cited as having escaped the middle-income trap?

    1. Argentina
    2. South Korea
    3. Brazil
    4. Malaysia
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) South Korea. South Korea, along with Taiwan and Singapore, is the standard example of an economy that moved from middle to high income. Argentina, Brazil and Malaysia have not made a lasting move to high income.

India-U.S. Army exercise Yudh Abhyas opens its 22nd edition with a counter-drone focus

  1. Consider the following pairs:
    Exercise : Participants
    1. Yudh Abhyas : Armies of India and the United States
    2. Cope India : Air forces of India and the United States
    3. Vajra Prahar : Navies of India and the United States
    How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. 1 and 2 are correct. 3 is wrong: Vajra Prahar is a special forces exercise between India and the U.S., not a naval exercise; SALVEX is a naval one.

  2. Consider the following statements about Yudh Abhyas:
    1. It is a trilateral exercise of India, the U.S. and Japan.
    2. It began in 2004.
    3. The 2024 edition was held in Rajasthan.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. 1 is wrong: it is a bilateral India-U.S. Army exercise. 2 is correct. 3 is correct: the 20th edition was at the Mahajan Field Firing Range, Rajasthan. Two statements are correct.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Small drones that fly low and slow are difficult to counter with conventional air defences.
    Statement-II: Such drones have a small radar signature and fly below and slower than the targets many air-defence radars are built to track.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct and II explains I: their small size, low altitude and low speed make them hard to detect and track, which is why dedicated counter-drone systems such as MLIDS exist.

  4. Consider the following India-U.S. agreements:
    1. GSOMIA
    2. LEMOA
    3. COMCASA
    4. BECA
    How many of the above were signed after 2015?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. GSOMIA was signed in 2002. LEMOA (August 2016), COMCASA (September 2018) and BECA (2020) came after 2015. Three were signed after 2015.

  5. With reference to the India-U.S. foundational agreements, consider the following statements:
    1. BECA permits the exchange of geospatial information.
    2. LEMOA relates to reciprocal logistics support.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct. The Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement covers geospatial products, and the Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement lets each side use the other's facilities for supplies and services.

  6. In military usage, 'multi-domain operations' refers to:

    1. Operations conducted only in mountainous terrain
    2. Operations that integrate land, air, sea, space and cyber capabilities
    3. Peacekeeping missions under the United Nations
    4. Exercises involving more than two countries
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Operations that integrate land, air, sea, space and cyber capabilities. Multi-domain operations combine effects across land, air, sea, space and cyberspace so that each domain supports the others.