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UPSC current affairs quiz, 12 September 2026

30 Prelims-style questions on the day's news, in the formats UPSC uses (statement-based, How many, Statement-I and II), each with the answer and an explanation. Try each one before you open the answer.

Read 12 September 2026 first11 September 2026 quiz13 September 2026 quizTimed test in the app

Centre tightens e-commerce rules: prior price, origin labels and a 48-hour grievance clock

  1. With reference to the Consumer Protection (E-Commerce) (Amendment) Rules, 2026, consider the following statements:
    1. The 'prior price' to be displayed is the highest price charged for the product in the preceding 30 days.
    2. For imported goods, platforms must disclose the importer's details and the country of origin.
    3. The amended rules take effect from 1 January 2027.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only. 1 is wrong: the prior price is the lowest price offered in the 30 days before the price cut, which stops sellers inflating the reference price. 2 is correct. 3 is correct: the rules apply from 1 January 2027.

  2. Consider the following statements about the Consumer Protection (E-Commerce) (Amendment) Rules, 2026:
    1. Platforms must clearly identify sponsored listings.
    2. Bundled fees are permitted for all products if disclosed at checkout.
    3. Consumer information cannot be used without explicit consent.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. 1 is correct: sponsored listings must be marked. 2 is wrong: bundled fees are prohibited except for loyalty programmes. 3 is correct: explicit consent is required to use consumer information.

  3. Consider the following statements about the Consumer Protection Act, 2019:
    1. It replaced the Consumer Protection Act, 1986.
    2. The President gave assent to it on 9 August 2019.
    3. It came into effect on the same day it received assent.
    4. The Central Consumer Protection Authority is set up under Section 10(1) of the Act.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. 1 is correct. 2 is correct. 3 is wrong: the Act came into effect on 20 July 2020, with some provisions from 24 July 2020. 4 is correct.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Under the 2026 e-commerce amendment, a platform announcing a discount must also show the lowest price offered in the preceding 30 days.
    Statement-II: A fixed reference price prevents sellers from inflating the 'original' price just before a sale to exaggerate the discount.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Statement-I is correct: the 'prior price' is the lowest price in the 30 days before the cut. Statement-II is correct and gives the reason: a 30-day lowest-price benchmark stops a seller from raising the list price briefly and then 'cutting' it.

  5. Under the amended e-commerce rules, within how many hours must a grievance officer acknowledge a consumer complaint?

    1. 24 hours
    2. 48 hours
    3. 72 hours
    4. One month
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 48 hours. Acknowledgement is due within 48 hours; resolution within one month. 24 and 72 hours are distractors; one month is the resolution deadline, not the acknowledgement deadline.

  6. Consider the following statements about the Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA):
    1. It is headquartered in New Delhi under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs.
    2. It can direct the discontinuation of false or misleading advertisements.
    3. It can impose a penalty of up to ₹10 lakh on those responsible for a misleading advertisement.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) All three. 1 is correct. 2 is correct: it can direct a trader, manufacturer, endorser, advertiser or publisher to discontinue misleading advertisements. 3 is correct: the penalty can go up to ₹10 lakh, and endorsers can be barred for up to one year (three years for repeat violations).

Indonesia prepares to take back five baby orangutans rescued in Odisha's Balasore

  1. With reference to orangutans, consider the following statements:
    1. They are great apes native to the rainforests of Indonesia and Malaysia.
    2. The Tapanuli orangutan is found only on the island of Borneo.
    3. All three orangutan species are listed as critically endangered.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only. 1 is correct. 2 is wrong: the Tapanuli orangutan, described in 2017, lives only in the Batang Toru forest of Sumatra; the Bornean orangutan lives on Borneo. 3 is correct: Bornean, Sumatran and Tapanuli orangutans are all critically endangered.

  2. Consider the following statements about CITES:
    1. Its text was finalised at a meeting in Washington, D.C. in 1973.
    2. Its secretariat is administered by the United Nations Environment Programme.
    3. Because it is legally binding, it replaces the national wildlife laws of its parties.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. 1 is correct: the text was finalised on 3 March 1973 in Washington, D.C. 2 is correct: the Geneva-based secretariat is administered by UNEP. 3 is wrong: CITES is binding but does not take the place of national laws; each party must adopt its own legislation to implement it.

  3. Consider the following statements about the Wild Life (Protection) Amendment Bill, 2021 as passed by Parliament:
    1. It reduces the total number of schedules to four.
    2. It inserts a schedule for specimens listed in the CITES Appendices.
    3. It requires the Centre to designate a Management Authority to grant export and import permits.
    4. It removes the need for any registration of live specimens of scheduled animals.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. 4 is wrong: every person possessing live specimens of scheduled animals must obtain a registration certificate from the Management Authority.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Repatriation of the orangutans rescued in Odisha must wait for India's investigation to finish and for a court to authorise it.
    Statement-II: Orangutans are listed in Appendix II of CITES.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. Statement-I is correct: repatriation depends on completion of India's investigation and on judicial authorisation. Statement-II is wrong: orangutans are in Appendix I, the category for species threatened with extinction.

  5. The Tapanuli orangutan, described as a separate species in 2017, is found only in:

    1. Kinabalu National Park, Borneo
    2. Batang Toru forest, Sumatra
    3. Western Ghats, India
    4. Sundarbans, Bangladesh
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Batang Toru forest, Sumatra. The Tapanuli orangutan lives only in the Batang Toru forest of Sumatra and numbers fewer than 800. Orangutans are not native to India or Bangladesh; Borneo is home to the Bornean orangutan.

  6. Consider the following statements about Indonesia:
    1. It is the world's largest archipelagic state.
    2. It shares the island of Borneo with Malaysia and Brunei.
    3. It shares the island of New Guinea with Papua New Guinea.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) All three. All three are correct. Indonesia has over 17,500 islands. It shares Borneo with Malaysia and Brunei, New Guinea with Papua New Guinea and Timor with Timor-Leste.

Bankers' Books Evidence Act, 2026 to replace the 1891 law from 1 October 2026

  1. With reference to the Bankers' Books Evidence Act, 2026, consider the following statements:
    1. It replaces a law enacted in 1891.
    2. It applies only to scheduled commercial banks and cannot be extended to other financial entities.
    3. It permits certification of copies of bank records by digital or electronic signatures.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only. 1 is correct: it replaces the Bankers' Books Evidence Act, 1891. 2 is wrong: it keeps coverage of banks and Post Office Savings Banks, and the Centre can extend it by notification to any entity or class of entities in the financial sector. 3 is correct: manual, digital or electronic signatures are allowed.

  2. Consider the following statements about the Bankers' Books Evidence Bill, 2026:
    1. It was introduced in the Rajya Sabha.
    2. It was passed by the Lok Sabha on 5 August 2026.
    3. It was passed by the Rajya Sabha on 10 August 2026.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. 1 is wrong: it was introduced in the Lok Sabha on 3 August 2026. 2 and 3 are correct.

  3. Under the Bankers' Books Evidence Act, 2026, which of the following is NOT a condition for admitting a digital copy of a bank record?

    1. It is a true representation or extract of the original
    2. There has been no unauthorised alteration of the data
    3. The original has been produced in court alongside it
    4. There has been no system tampering affecting data integrity
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) The original has been produced in court alongside it. The three conditions are a true copy, no unauthorised alteration and no system tampering. The whole point of the law, since 1891, is that the original need not be produced.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Under the Bankers' Books Evidence Act, 2026, a bank officer cannot routinely be compelled to produce the bank's books in a case where the bank is not a party.
    Statement-II: The Act allows the court to order production or testimony in such cases only for special cause recorded in writing.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Statement-I is correct. Statement-II is correct and explains it: the default protection holds unless the court records special cause, which now includes doubts on the accuracy of entries, interrupted record-keeping, or a bank's failure to comply with inspection orders.

  5. Consider the following statements:
    1. The Bankers' Books Evidence Act, 1891 was enacted on 13 March 1891.
    2. The Information Technology Act, 2000 widened the 1891 Act to cover electronic evidence.
    3. The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 replaced the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
    4. The Bankers' Books Evidence Act, 2026 received assent in December 2025.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. 4 is wrong: the 2026 Act received assent on 13 August 2026.

  6. Consider the following statements about the scope of the Bankers' Books Evidence Act, 2026:
    1. It retains coverage of Post Office Savings Banks.
    2. The Centre can extend it to entities in the financial sector by notification.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct. The Act keeps the 1891 coverage of banks and Post Office Savings Banks and lets the Central Government extend it, by notification and with conditions, to any entity or class of entities in the financial sector.

Editorial: India's road deaths need a Safe System approach, not just fines

  1. With reference to road safety in India, consider the following statements:
    1. India accounts for about 11% of global road traffic deaths.
    2. In 2024, pedestrians accounted for a larger share of road deaths than two-wheeler riders.
    3. The Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 came into force on 1 July 1989.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only. 1 is correct. 2 is wrong: two-wheeler riders made up 46.2% of deaths and pedestrians 20.6%. 3 is correct.

  2. Consider the following statements about the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2019:
    1. It provides for recall of defective vehicles.
    2. It provides for electronic monitoring of traffic violations.
    3. It came into force in full on 1 July 1989.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. 1 and 2 are correct. 3 is wrong: 1 July 1989 is when the parent Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 came into force; 63 clauses of the 2019 amendment took effect on 1 September 2019.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: The Hindu's editorial of 12 September 2026 says national data have not shown a significant improvement in road safety since the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2019.
    Statement-II: The Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2019 reduced penalties for most traffic offences.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. Statement-I is correct: the editorial says national data have not shown significant improvement since 2019. Statement-II is wrong: the amendment increased penalties. The editorial blames weak enforcement, low use of helmets and seat belts, and speeding, not lower fines.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    1. The Safe System approach assumes that road users will make mistakes.
    2. Post-crash care is one of its components.
    3. Safe speeds means setting speeds suited to the road environment.
    4. It relies mainly on raising fines for individual violations.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. 4 is wrong: the approach shifts the focus from punishing individuals to designing roads, vehicles and speeds so that errors do not cause death.

  5. The UN Decade of Action for Road Safety 2021 to 2030 aims to reduce road traffic deaths and injuries by what proportion by 2030?

    1. 25%
    2. 33%
    3. 50%
    4. 75%
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 50%. The target is a 50% reduction by 2030.

  6. Which of the following did The Hindu's editorial of 12 September 2026 propose?
    1. Tamper-proof seat belt reminder systems in vehicles
    2. Preventing post-purchase modifications of vehicles
    3. Speed-mitigation features in road infrastructure
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3. All three appear among the editorial's proposals, along with systematic use of the Safe System approach and better trauma care.

U.S. proposes ending the 60-day grace period for H-1B and other laid-off visa workers

  1. With reference to the H-1B visa of the United States, consider the following statements:
    1. It was created by the Immigration Act of 1990.
    2. Its regular annual cap is 65,000, with an additional 20,000 for holders of U.S. master's or higher degrees.
    3. A holder can stay in H-1B status for a maximum of ten years.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. 1 is correct: the Immigration Act of 1990, signed on 20 November 1990, set up the H-1B category. 2 is correct. 3 is wrong: status is granted for three years at a time, up to a maximum of six years.

  2. Consider the following statements about the U.S. proposal published on 11 September 2026:
    1. It would remove the up-to-60-day grace period after employment ends for certain work visa holders.
    2. It was published by the U.S. Department of State.
    3. Public comments can be submitted until 10 November 2026.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. 1 is correct. 2 is wrong: it was published by the Department of Homeland Security (U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services), not the State Department. 3 is correct.

  3. Consider the following statements about the H-1B visa:
    1. It was established by the Immigration Act of 1990.
    2. It is a 'dual intent' visa, so holders may seek permanent residence.
    3. Status is granted for three years at a time.
    4. Holders can remain in H-1B status for a maximum of six years.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) All four. All four are correct. The 1990 Act created the category; the visa is dual intent; the initial period is three years and total physical presence in H-1B status is capped at six years.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: The U.S. Department of Homeland Security has proposed removing the 60-day grace period for laid-off H-1B workers.
    Statement-II: DHS argues that the grace period disconnects a worker's lawful status from the basis of eligibility for that status.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct, and Statement-II is DHS's main stated reason for the proposal, along with administrative burden and programme integrity.

  5. The 60-day grace period for certain high-skilled nonimmigrant workers in the U.S. was introduced by which of the following?

    1. The Immigration Act of 1990
    2. The AC21 final rule of 2016, effective 17 January 2017
    3. A presidential proclamation of September 2025
    4. The Immigration and Nationality Act of 1952
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) The AC21 final rule of 2016, effective 17 January 2017. The grace period came from DHS's 2016 AC21 final rule, effective 17 January 2017. The 1990 Act created the H-1B category; the 2025 proclamation imposed a $100,000 fee.

  6. Consider the following statements about the September 2025 U.S. presidential proclamation on H-1B visas:
    1. It imposed a one-time fee of $100,000.
    2. The fee applied to H-1B applications made between 21 September 2025 and 21 September 2026.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct: the proclamation required a one-time $100,000 fee when an employer applied for an H-1B worker between those dates.