UPSC current affairs quiz, 17 September 2026

With reference to the India-Pakistan Agreement on Advance Notice on Military Exercises, Manoeuvres and Troop Movements, consider the following statements:
1. It was signed in 1991.
2. It requires naval ships of the two countries to keep a minimum distance from each other in international waters.
3. It was the first India-Pakistan agreement to ban attacks on each other's nuclear installations.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Consider the following statements about the September 2026 naval incident:
1. The Pakistani ship involved was PNS Hunain.
2. India attributed the collision to unsafe manoeuvring at high speed.
3. Pakistan said the collision took place in its territorial sea.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Pakistan's claim that the collision occurred in its Exclusive Economic Zone does not by itself make the presence of an Indian warship there unlawful.
Statement-II: Under UNCLOS, other states enjoy freedom of navigation in a coastal state's Exclusive Economic Zone.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Consider the following pairs:
1. 1988: agreement not to attack each other's nuclear installations
2. 6 April 1991: agreement on preventing airspace violations
3. June 2011: PNS Babur and INS Godavari incident
4. 26 July 2024: commissioning of PNS Hunain
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Under the India-Pakistan agreement of 1991, what is the minimum distance that naval ships and submarines of the two countries must keep from each other in international waters?

1. One nautical mile
2. Three nautical miles
3. Twelve nautical miles
4. Twenty-four nautical miles

Consider the following statements about the 1991 India-Pakistan agreement on military exercises:
1. It followed the tensions caused by Exercise Brasstacks.
2. It requires advance notice of major exercises and troop movements near the border.
3. It requires naval ships of the two countries to stay at least twelve nautical miles apart in international waters.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

With reference to the Global Gender Gap Index 2026, consider the following statements:
1. It is published by the World Economic Forum.
2. India's highest-ranked subindex is Political Empowerment.
3. India has closed more than 70% of its overall gender gap.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Consider the following statements about the Global Gender Gap Index 2026:
1. It covers 145 economies.
2. The world has closed more than 75% of its gender gap.
3. Iceland is ranked first.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Consider the following statements about India in the Global Gender Gap Index 2026:
1. India's score in Educational Attainment is above 95%.
2. India's score in Health and Survival is above 95%.
3. India's score in Economic Participation and Opportunity is its highest ever.
4. India's overall rank improved from the previous edition.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Political Empowerment is India's highest-ranked subindex in the Global Gender Gap Index 2026 even though it is India's lowest subindex score.
Statement-II: The world as a whole has closed a smaller share of the political empowerment gap than of any other subindex.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

In the Global Gender Gap Index 2026, which of the following countries is ranked lowest?

1. Pakistan
2. Iran
3. Chad
4. Bangladesh

Consider the following statements:
1. At the current pace, the world will reach full gender parity in 120 years.
2. Southern Asia is the worst-performing of the eight regions in the index.
3. Southern Asia's weakest subindex is Economic Participation and Opportunity.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

According to the Census of India, which of the following is NOT one of the criteria a place must meet to be classified as a census town?

1. A minimum population of 5,000
2. At least 75% of the main male working population engaged in non-agricultural pursuits
3. A population density of at least 400 persons per sq km
4. A notified municipality or cantonment board

Consider the following statements about census towns:
1. A census town must have a population of at least 5,000.
2. A census town must be governed by a municipality.
3. The number of census towns more than doubled between 2001 and 2011.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Consider the following factors:
1. Population of the area
2. Density of the population
3. Revenue generated for local administration
4. Percentage of employment in non-agricultural activities
How many of the above are named in Article 243Q(2) as factors the Governor may consider when specifying a transitional or urban area?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs says the census town criteria carry a 'male bias'.
Statement-II: The census town work criterion counts only the main male working population.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Consider the following statements:
1. The Registrar General of India has decided to change the census town definition for Census 2027.
2. The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs has proposed using satellite imagery to identify urban areas.
3. Census 2011 recorded more than 40% of India's population as urban.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Under Article 243Q of the Constitution, a Nagar Panchayat is constituted for which of the following?

1. A larger urban area
2. A smaller urban area
3. A transitional area
4. An industrial township

With reference to the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2026, consider the following statements:
1. It inserts Section 9D into the MMDR Act, 1957.
2. It requires States to refund all mineral taxes collected before the law begins.
3. It allows States to levy taxes on mineral bearing lands only in accordance with conditions or restrictions prescribed by the Central Government.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court's judgment of 25 July 2024 in Mineral Area Development Authority v. Steel Authority of India:
1. It was delivered by a nine-judge Bench.
2. It held that royalty is a tax.
3. It held that States can tax mineral-bearing land under Entry 49 of the State List.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Parliament's power to limit State taxation under Entry 50 of the State List does not extend to taxes on mineral-bearing land.
Statement-II: Entry 50 of the State List is subject to limitations imposed by Parliament by law relating to mineral development, whereas taxes on land fall under Entry 49, which carries no such qualification.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Consider the following statements about Section 9D of the MMDR Amendment Bill, 2026:
1. It bars State levies on mineral rights except under conditions or restrictions prescribed by the Centre.
2. It applies to levies based on mineral quantity, mineral value or royalty.
3. It requires States to refund amounts already recovered.
4. It deems unpaid past levies invalid.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Which of the following issues has PRS Legislative Research flagged in the MMDR Amendment Bill, 2026?
1. Parliament's legislative competence to regulate mineral bearing land
2. Retrospective invalidation that conflicts with a Supreme Court judgment
3. Possible violation of Article 14
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Consider the following statements:
1. Land is a subject in the State List.
2. Regulation of mines and mineral development under Union control is covered by an entry in the Union List.
3. The MMDR Act was enacted in 1957.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

With reference to India's ethanol blending programme, consider the following statements:
1. E20 petrol contains 20% ethanol and 80% petrol.
2. The 2022 amendment to the National Policy on Biofuels, 2018 advanced the 20% blending target to ESY 2025-26 from 2030.
3. The 2022 amendment banned the export of biofuels in all cases.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Consider the following statements about the amendments to the National Policy on Biofuels, 2018 approved in May 2022:
1. They advanced the 20% ethanol blending target to ESY 2025-26.
2. They allowed more feedstocks for the production of biofuels.
3. They permitted export of biofuels in specific cases.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Vehicles running on E20 petrol travel somewhat fewer kilometres per litre than on unblended petrol.
Statement-II: Ethanol has a lower energy content per litre than petrol.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Consider the following statements about the op-ed 'What lies beyond India's E20 push':
1. It estimates that E20's lower mileage cost consumers ₹88,234 crore over three years.
2. It argues that emissions per kilometre could rise if mileage falls by 4% to 6%.
3. It recommends an immediate move to E30 petrol.
4. It recommends investing in public transport.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Which of the following best describes second-generation ethanol?

1. Ethanol made from sugarcane juice
2. Ethanol made from grains such as maize and rice
3. Ethanol made from non-food plant material such as crop residues
4. Ethanol made by blending petrol with methanol

Consider the following statements:
1. E20 is petrol containing 20% anhydrous ethanol.
2. E20 sales began before the 2022 amendment to the National Policy on Biofuels.
3. The testing cited by the op-ed was carried out jointly by ARAI, SIAM and Indian Oil Corporation.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None