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UPSC current affairs quiz, 30 September 2026

30 Prelims-style questions on the day's news, in the formats UPSC uses (statement-based, How many, Statement-I and II), each with the answer and an explanation. Try each one before you open the answer.

Read 30 September 2026 first29 September 2026 quiz1 October 2026 quizTimed test in the app

Supreme Court: a police-custody confession alone cannot justify NSA detention

  1. Under the National Security Act, 1980, what is the maximum period for which a person may be detained?

    1. Three months
    2. Six months
    3. Twelve months
    4. Twenty-four months
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Twelve months. Section 13 of the NSA caps detention at 12 months from the date of detention. Three months is the limit in Article 22(4) beyond which detention needs an Advisory Board's opinion; it is not the NSA's outer limit.

  2. Consider the following statements:
    1. Under Article 22(4), no preventive detention law can authorise detention beyond three months unless an Advisory Board reports sufficient cause, subject to a law made by Parliament under Article 22(7).
    2. Article 22(6) obliges the detaining authority to disclose every fact behind the order to the detenu.
    3. Only Parliament can make laws on preventive detention for reasons connected with public order.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Only one. Statement 1 is correct: that is the text of Article 22(4) read with 22(7). Statement 2 is wrong: Article 22(6) allows the authority to withhold facts it considers against the public interest. Statement 3 is wrong: Entry 3 of the Concurrent List covers preventive detention for security of a State, public order and essential supplies, so States can also legislate.

  3. Consider the following statements about the National Security Act, 1980:
    1. The maximum period of detention is 12 months.
    2. The government must place the case before an Advisory Board within three weeks of detention.
    3. Grounds must ordinarily be communicated within five days and, in exceptional cases, not later than ten days.
    4. An order made by a District Magistrate ordinarily lapses after 12 days unless approved by the State government.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) All four. All four are correct: Section 13 caps detention at 12 months; Section 10 requires reference to the Advisory Board within three weeks; Section 8 sets the 5 and 10 day limits for grounds; Section 3(4) makes an officer's order lapse after 12 days (extendable to 15 in a narrow case) without State approval.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: In September 2026, the Supreme Court held that a confession cannot be the sole ground for detention under the National Security Act.
    Statement-II: Preventive detention orders are purely administrative and are therefore outside judicial review.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. Statement-I is correct: the Bench of Justices Datta and Nagu said so on 29 September 2026. Statement-II is wrong: courts review whether the authority's satisfaction rests on relevant material and whether safeguards were followed, which is exactly what the Court did here.

  5. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that preventive detention is an exception to Article 21 and should not be used where the ordinary criminal law is adequate to deal with the situation?

    1. A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
    2. ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla
    3. Rekha v. State of Tamil Nadu
    4. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Rekha v. State of Tamil Nadu. Rekha v. State of Tamil Nadu (2011) laid down this principle. Gopalan (1950) read Article 21 narrowly, ADM Jabalpur (1976) allowed suspension of habeas corpus during the Emergency, and Kesavananda (1973) is the basic structure case.

  6. Preventive detention for reasons connected with the security of a State and the maintenance of public order is a subject in which list of the Seventh Schedule?

    1. Union List only
    2. Concurrent List
    3. State List only
    4. It is a residuary subject
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Concurrent List. Entry 3 of List III (Concurrent) covers it. Entry 9 of List I covers preventive detention for defence, foreign affairs and the security of India, which only Parliament can legislate on.

Why the Centre cut import duty on crude edible oils ahead of the festival season

  1. With reference to the customs duty changes on edible oils notified in September 2026, consider the following statements:
    1. The basic customs duty on crude sunflower oil was reduced to nil.
    2. The basic customs duty on refined palm oil was reduced to nil.
    3. The effective duty differential between crude and refined oils was maintained.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 1 and 3 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only. Statement 1 is correct: crude sunflower oil went from 10% to nil. Statement 2 is wrong: refined palm oil went from 32.5% to 27.5%. Statement 3 is correct: the 19.25 percentage point effective gap between crude and refined oils was kept to protect domestic refiners.

  2. Consider the following statements about the September 2026 edible oil duty changes:
    1. They were made through a notification, without an amendment passed by Parliament.
    2. The basic duty on refined soybean oil was cut from 32.5% to 27.5%.
    3. The duty on crude palm oil was reduced to nil.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is correct: Notification No. 31/2026-Customs used the government's power under Section 25 of the Customs Act, 1962. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is wrong: crude palm oil went to 5%; only crude sunflower oil went to nil.

  3. Consider the following statements about the National Mission on Edible Oils:
    1. NMEO-Oil Palm was launched in 2021 with an outlay of ₹11,040 crore.
    2. NMEO-Oilseeds covers the period 2024-25 to 2030-31.
    3. NMEO-Oilseeds aims to make India fully self-sufficient in edible oils by 2030-31.
    4. Rapeseed-mustard, groundnut, soybean, sunflower and sesamum are among its focus crops.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: the mission expects domestic edible oil production of 25.45 million tonnes by 2030-31, meeting around 72% of projected demand, not full self-sufficiency.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: The government kept a wide duty gap between crude and refined edible oils when it cut duties in September 2026.
    Statement-II: A wide gap makes importing crude oil and refining it in India cheaper than importing refined oil.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct, and Statement-II gives the reason for Statement-I: the 19.25 percentage point gap protects domestic refiners and keeps value addition in India.

  5. Which one of the following is the main source country group for India's palm oil imports?

    1. Argentina and Brazil
    2. Indonesia and Malaysia
    3. Russia and Ukraine
    4. Canada and Australia
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Indonesia and Malaysia. India buys palm oil mainly from Indonesia and Malaysia; soybean oil comes mainly from Argentina and Brazil.

  6. Under which provision can the Central Government reduce customs duty rates by notification in the public interest?

    1. Article 265 of the Constitution
    2. Section 25 of the Customs Act, 1962
    3. Section 3 of the Foreign Trade (Development and Regulation) Act, 1992
    4. Article 110 of the Constitution
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Section 25 of the Customs Act, 1962. Section 25 of the Customs Act, 1962 allows exemption notifications in the public interest. Article 265 requires taxes to have legal authority, Article 110 defines Money Bills, and the FTDR Act deals with import and export policy, not duty rates.

Policing report: one in eight faced cybercrime, poor victims paid more bribes for redress

  1. The 'Status of Policing in India Report 2026', which focused on cybercrime victims, was brought out by:

    1. National Crime Records Bureau and Bureau of Police Research and Development
    2. Common Cause and Lokniti-CSDS
    3. NITI Aayog and the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre
    4. Commonwealth Human Rights Initiative and the Law Commission of India
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Common Cause and Lokniti-CSDS. SPIR is a civil society report by the NGO Common Cause and the Lokniti programme of CSDS. NCRB publishes Crime in India; BPR&D publishes Data on Police Organisations; I4C is a Home Ministry body.

  2. Consider the following statements about the Status of Policing in India Report 2026:
    1. It was prepared by the National Crime Records Bureau.
    2. It surveyed 8,306 people across 16 States.
    3. It found that poor victims were more likely than affluent victims to pay bribes to get their complaints handled.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is wrong: SPIR is by Common Cause and Lokniti-CSDS, not NCRB. Statements 2 and 3 are correct: 51% of poor victims who complained paid bribes against 12% of affluent victims.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    1. 'Police' and 'Public order' are subjects in the State List.
    2. The Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
    3. The National Cyber Crime Reporting Portal allows citizens to report all types of cybercrime online.
    4. NCRB data show that total cognisable crime and cybercrime both fell in 2024.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Statement 4 is wrong: total cognisable crime fell about 6% in 2024 but cybercrime rose 17.9%.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: SPIR 2026 found that a higher share of affluent and college-educated victims reported financial fraud than poor and non-literate victims.
    Statement-II: People who transact more online have greater exposure to cyber fraud.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I: the report links exposure to digital use, and among victims 57% of the affluent and 59% of graduates reported financial fraud against 47% of the poor and 40% of the non-literate.

  5. Which of the following is the toll-free national helpline number for reporting cyber financial fraud in India?

    1. 112
    2. 1098
    3. 1930
    4. 14567
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 1930. 1930 is the cyber fraud helpline linked to the National Cyber Crime Reporting Portal. 112 is the emergency response number, 1098 is Childline and 14567 is the elder helpline.

  6. Consider the following statements about the Information Technology Act, 2000:
    1. Section 66C deals with identity theft.
    2. Section 66D deals with cheating by personation using a computer resource.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct: Section 66C punishes fraudulent use of another person's electronic signature, password or unique identification (identity theft), and Section 66D punishes cheating by personation using a computer resource.

₹1 lakh crore RDI Fund for deep tech pauses new applications as funds run short

  1. With reference to the Research, Development and Innovation (RDI) scheme, consider the following statements:
    1. A Special Purpose Fund set up within the Anusandhan National Research Foundation acts as the custodian of the fund.
    2. It primarily provides grants to university researchers for basic research.
    3. The Department of Science and Technology is its nodal department.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only. Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the fund offers long-term low or nil interest loans, equity and fund-of-funds contributions to support private-sector R&D at higher technology readiness levels; it does not give grants.

  2. Consider the following statements about the RDI scheme:
    1. It was approved by the Union Cabinet in July 2025.
    2. Its corpus is ₹1 lakh crore.
    3. It is administered by NITI Aayog.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: the fund sits with the Anusandhan National Research Foundation and the Department of Science and Technology is the nodal department.

  3. Consider the following statements about the governance of the RDI scheme:
    1. The ANRF Governing Board, chaired by the Prime Minister, provides strategic direction.
    2. An Empowered Group of Secretaries led by the Cabinet Secretary approves sectors and fund managers.
    3. Second Level Fund Managers pass money from the companies back to the ANRF.
    4. The scheme targets projects at higher technology readiness levels.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct. Statement 3 reverses the flow: Second Level Fund Managers receive money from the Special Purpose Fund and lend to or invest in companies.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: The RDI Fund offers long-term loans and equity rather than grants.
    Statement-II: The fund is meant to finance projects at higher technology readiness levels that are closer to commercial use.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I: projects near commercialisation can be expected to repay loans or give equity returns, so the fund uses returnable capital rather than grants.

  5. On the Technology Readiness Level (TRL) scale, which level indicates that a technology has been proven in its operational environment?

    1. TRL 1
    2. TRL 4
    3. TRL 6
    4. TRL 9
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) TRL 9. TRL 9 is the highest level: the actual system is proven in operation. TRL 1 is basic principles observed, TRL 4 is validation in a laboratory, and TRL 6 is a prototype demonstrated in a relevant environment.

  6. The Anusandhan National Research Foundation was established under which of the following?

    1. An executive resolution of the Department of Science and Technology
    2. The Anusandhan National Research Foundation Act, 2023
    3. The Science and Engineering Research Board Act, 2008
    4. A notification under the Companies Act, 2013
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) The Anusandhan National Research Foundation Act, 2023. ANRF was set up under the Anusandhan National Research Foundation Act, 2023, which also repealed the Science and Engineering Research Board Act, 2008 and subsumed SERB into ANRF.

Op-ed: To protect tigers, track wildlife crime beyond reserve boundaries

  1. Consider the following statements:
    1. The National Tiger Conservation Authority was constituted under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 after its 2006 amendment.
    2. The Wildlife Crime Control Bureau is a statutory body under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
    3. The tiger is listed in Appendix I of CITES.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only. Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the WCCB is a statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, created by the same 2006 amendment.

  2. Consider the following statements about TRAFFIC's 2025 'Skin and Bones' report:
    1. It covers tiger seizures from January 2000 to June 2025.
    2. China recorded the highest number of seizures among tiger range countries.
    3. The share of seizures involving whole tigers has fallen since 2020.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Only one. Only statement 1 is correct. India, not China, recorded the most seizures (880). Whole tigers rose from about 10% of seizures in the 2000s to about 40% since 2020.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    1. Tiger reserves are notified under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
    2. A tiger reserve has a core or critical tiger habitat and a buffer or peripheral area.
    3. The National Tiger Conservation Authority is chaired by the Prime Minister.
    4. Project Tiger was launched in 1973.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: the NTCA is chaired by the Union Minister in charge of Environment and Forests. The Prime Minister chairs the National Board for Wildlife.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: The Indian Express op-ed of 30 September 2026 calls for landscape-scale enforcement against tiger crime.
    Statement-II: Tiger trafficking chains extend from poachers to transporters, online sellers and buyers across States and borders.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct, and Statement-II is the reason the op-ed gives for Statement-I: because the crime landscape spreads far beyond reserves, enforcement confined to reserves cannot break the chain.

  5. The Wildlife Crime Control Bureau functions under which ministry?

    1. Ministry of Home Affairs
    2. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
    3. Ministry of Finance
    4. Ministry of External Affairs
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. The WCCB is a statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, set up through the 2006 amendment to the Wild Life (Protection) Act.

  6. Consider the following statements:
    1. TRAFFIC is an agency of the United Nations Environment Programme.
    2. CITES regulates international trade in listed species of wild animals and plants.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2 only. Statement 1 is wrong: TRAFFIC is a non-governmental wildlife trade monitoring network, not a UN agency. Statement 2 is correct: CITES controls international trade, with Appendix I species barred from commercial trade.