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UPSC current affairs quiz, 29 September 2026

30 Prelims-style questions on the day's news, in the formats UPSC uses (statement-based, How many, Statement-I and II), each with the answer and an explanation. Try each one before you open the answer.

Read 29 September 2026 first28 September 2026 quiz30 September 2026 quizTimed test in the app

Supreme Court orders Delhi-NCR safety audit in four weeks after a string of rapes

  1. With reference to the Supreme Court's suo motu case on sexual offences in Delhi-NCR (September 2026), consider the following statements:
    1. The case was taken up by a three-judge bench headed by the Chief Justice of India.
    2. The court grounded its intervention in Article 21 of the Constitution.
    3. The court directed an audit of lighting and CCTV coverage in public spaces within four weeks.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only. Statement 1 is wrong: the bench had two judges, Justices J.B. Pardiwala and K. Vinod Chandran. Statements 2 and 3 are correct: the court relied on Article 21 and gave four weeks for the lighting and CCTV audit.

  2. Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court's September 2026 suo motu case on Delhi-NCR:
    1. The court asked the Delhi High Court's Registrar General for data on Fast Track Special Courts and POCSO courts.
    2. The court said trials in such cases should preferably be completed within one year.
    3. The court struck down a provision of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita as unconstitutional.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is correct: the Registrar General must file an affidavit on these courts. Statement 2 is correct: trials should preferably end within one year. Statement 3 is wrong: the order issued directions; it did not strike down any law.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: The Supreme Court can examine a matter of public importance even when no party has filed a petition.
    Statement-II: The Supreme Court's jurisdiction under Article 32 is limited to petitions filed by the person whose right is violated.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. Statement-I is correct: the Court takes suo motu cognisance, as it did here. Statement-II is incorrect: since the 1980s the Court has relaxed standing (locus standi) through public interest litigation, letter petitions and suo motu cases.

  4. Consider the following:
    1. ERSS 112
    2. Women Helpline 181
    3. One Stop Centres
    4. Safe City Project
    How many of the above did the Supreme Court ask authorities to report on in the Delhi-NCR suo motu case?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) All four. All four are in the list of systems whose operational status, coverage, complaint volume and response time must be reported, along with Women Help Desks, ITSSO, the National Database on Sexual Offenders and Mission Shakti.

  5. Which one of the following judgments first laid down guidelines against sexual harassment of women at the workplace, drawing on Articles 14, 15, 19 and 21?

    1. Maneka Gandhi v Union of India
    2. Vishaka v State of Rajasthan
    3. Nipun Saxena v Union of India
    4. Shreya Singhal v Union of India
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Vishaka v State of Rajasthan. Vishaka (1997) framed the workplace guidelines later replaced by the POSH Act, 2013. Maneka Gandhi (1978) expanded Article 21's procedure test; Nipun Saxena (2018) dealt with victim anonymity; Shreya Singhal (2015) struck down Section 66A of the IT Act.

  6. Consider the following statements:
    1. Section 72 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 makes disclosing the identity of a victim of certain sexual offences punishable.
    2. The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita came into force on 1 July 2024.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct. Section 72 carries forward the old Section 228A of the IPC, and the BNS replaced the IPC from 1 July 2024.

Supreme Court asks Centre to frame rules to stop social media firms signing up minors

  1. Consider the following statements:
    1. Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, a person who has not attained the age of majority is not competent to contract.
    2. Under the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, a 'child' is a person below 16 years of age.
    3. Section 79 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 exempts intermediaries from liability for third-party content if they observe due diligence.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only. Statement 1 is correct (Section 11 of the Contract Act). Statement 2 is wrong: the DPDP Act defines a child as a person below 18. Statement 3 is correct: Section 79 is the safe harbour provision, available only if the intermediary observes due diligence.

  2. Consider the following statements:
    1. In Shreya Singhal v Union of India (2015), the Supreme Court struck down Section 66A of the IT Act.
    2. In the same case, the Court read down Section 79 so that 'actual knowledge' means a court order or a government notification.
    3. In the same case, the Court struck down Section 69A of the IT Act, which permits blocking of online content.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: the Court upheld Section 69A as a narrowly drawn provision with safeguards.

  3. Consider the following statements about the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023:
    1. It defines a child as a person below 18 years of age.
    2. It requires verifiable consent of a parent or lawful guardian before a child's personal data is processed.
    3. It bars tracking, behavioural monitoring and targeted advertising directed at children.
    4. Its maximum penalty for breaching obligations relating to children is ₹50 crore.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Statement 4 is wrong: the penalty for breaching obligations on children's data can go up to ₹200 crore.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: A social media account opened by a 15-year-old in India rests on an agreement that is void in law.
    Statement-II: Under Indian law a person below the age of majority is not competent to contract, and such a contract is void ab initio.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Accepting terms of service is a contract; Section 11 of the Contract Act and Mohori Bibee (1903) make a minor's contract void. The Solicitor General accepted this in court.

  5. Australia's Online Safety Amendment (Social Media Minimum Age) Act, 2024 requires platforms to take reasonable steps to prevent account holding by persons below which age?

    1. 13 years
    2. 14 years
    3. 16 years
    4. 18 years
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 16 years. The Australian law sets 16 as the minimum age, applying from 10 December 2025, with fines up to A$49.5 million.

  6. Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court hearing of 28 September 2026:
    1. The Solicitor General agreed that contracts between minors and social media intermediaries are void.
    2. The Court immediately withdrew the safe harbour of all social media platforms.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the Court asked the government to frame rules and only warned that it could issue directions under Section 79 if the government failed to act.

Industrial output grows 8% in August 2026, but consumer non-durables lag at 2.1%

  1. With reference to the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) data for August 2026, which one of the following use-based categories recorded the lowest growth?

    1. Primary goods
    2. Consumer non-durables
    3. Infrastructure and construction goods
    4. Consumer durables
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Consumer non-durables. Consumer non-durables grew only 2.1%. Primary goods grew 3.5%, infrastructure and construction goods 6.4% and consumer durables 11.1%.

  2. Consider the following statements about the new IIP series:
    1. Its base year is 2022-23.
    2. It uses the Output Producer Price Index as the deflator instead of the Wholesale Price Index.
    3. It is compiled by the Reserve Bank of India.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: the IIP is compiled by the National Statistics Office under MoSPI.

  3. Consider the following statements about IIP data for August 2026:
    1. Manufacturing grew faster than the overall index.
    2. Electricity and gas supply grew faster than manufacturing.
    3. Mining and quarrying contracted.
    4. July 2026 growth was revised downwards.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Statements 1 (9% against 8%), 2 (12.3% against 9%) and 3 (minus 5.6%) are correct. Statement 4 is wrong: July was revised upwards, from 6.7% to 7.4%.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Year-on-year IIP growth for August 2026 overstates the underlying improvement in industrial activity.
    Statement-II: Output in August 2025 was held down by inventory adjustments ahead of the GST rate cuts of September 2025.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. A weak base month (August 2025) makes the year-on-year growth in August 2026 look larger. That is the base effect, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.

  5. In the use-based classification of the IIP, packaged food, soaps and medicines fall mainly under which category?

    1. Intermediate goods
    2. Consumer durables
    3. Consumer non-durables
    4. Primary goods
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Consumer non-durables. These are fast-moving goods used up quickly, so they fall under consumer non-durables, the category that grew only 2.1% in August 2026.

  6. Consider the following statements:
    1. The IIP measures the change in the volume of industrial production.
    2. The Index of Eight Core Industries is compiled by the Office of the Economic Adviser, DPIIT.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct. The IIP is a volume index. The core industries index, covering coal, crude oil, natural gas, refinery products, fertilisers, steel, cement and electricity, is compiled by the Office of the Economic Adviser in the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade.

J&K Assembly passes resolution seeking restoration of statehood as BJP walks out

  1. Consider the following statements regarding the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir:
    1. Its Legislative Assembly can make laws on 'police' and 'public order'.
    2. It has a legislature under a framework based on Article 239A of the Constitution.
    3. Restoration of its statehood requires a law made by Parliament.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only. Statement 1 is wrong: the Reorganisation Act keeps public order and police outside the Assembly's law-making power. Statements 2 and 3 are correct: the Act applies the Article 239A model, and a change in status needs a parliamentary law under Articles 3 and 4.

  2. Consider the following statements about Article 3 of the Constitution:
    1. A Bill under Article 3 can be introduced in Parliament only on the recommendation of the President.
    2. The views of the affected State legislature, when sought, are binding on Parliament.
    3. A law under Article 3 must be passed by the special majority required under Article 368.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Only one. Only statement 1 is correct. The State legislature's views are not binding. Article 4 says such laws are not amendments under Article 368, so a simple majority is enough.

  3. Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court's judgment in In Re: Article 370 of the Constitution (2023):
    1. It was delivered by a five-judge Constitution Bench.
    2. It upheld the abrogation of Article 370.
    3. It held that Parliament can permanently convert any State into a Union Territory.
    4. It directed the Election Commission to hold Assembly elections by 30 September 2024.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: the Court did not decide whether a State can be converted into a UT, relying instead on the Solicitor General's statement that statehood would be restored.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: The resolution passed by the Jammu and Kashmir Assembly on 28 September 2026 does not by itself restore statehood.
    Statement-II: Under the Constitution, the status of a State or Union Territory can be changed only by a law made by Parliament.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I: Articles 3 and 4 give Parliament the power, so an Assembly resolution is only a recommendation.

  5. Article 239AA, which provides special provisions for a legislature and council of ministers, applies to which one of the following?

    1. Puducherry
    2. Jammu and Kashmir
    3. National Capital Territory of Delhi
    4. Ladakh
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) National Capital Territory of Delhi. Article 239AA, inserted by the 69th Amendment, applies to the NCT of Delhi. Puducherry's legislature rests on Article 239A, whose model the J&K Reorganisation Act applies to J&K. Ladakh has no legislature.

  6. Consider the following statements about the 2024 Jammu and Kashmir Assembly election:
    1. It was held in three phases.
    2. The National Conference won a majority of the 90 seats on its own.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct: polling was on 18 September, 25 September and 1 October 2024. Statement 2 is wrong: the National Conference won 42 of 90 seats, short of the 46 needed for a majority on its own.

Op-ed: Cutting food loss and waste offers India a triple win

  1. With reference to Sustainable Development Goal target 12.3, consider the following statements:
    1. It aims to halve per capita global food waste at the retail and consumer levels by 2030.
    2. It aims to reduce food losses along production and supply chains, including post-harvest losses.
    3. The Food Waste Index under this target is maintained by the World Food Programme.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. Statements 1 and 2 describe the two halves of target 12.3. Statement 3 is wrong: the Food Waste Index is maintained by UNEP; the Food Loss Index is maintained by the FAO.

  2. Consider the following statements:
    1. Food loss refers to food lost after harvest and before it reaches retail.
    2. Food waste refers to food discarded at retail, food service and household levels.
    3. Both are measured by a single global index maintained by the FAO.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: the FAO maintains the Food Loss Index and UNEP the Food Waste Index.

  3. Consider the following statements about the International Day of Awareness of Food Loss and Waste:
    1. It is observed on 29 September.
    2. It was designated by the UN General Assembly in 2019.
    3. It was first observed in 2015 along with the adoption of the SDGs.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct (resolution 74/209 of 19 December 2019). Statement 3 is wrong: the day was first observed in 2020.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Converting organic waste from wholesale markets into compressed biogas can reduce greenhouse gas emissions.
    Statement-II: Organic waste dumped in open landfills decomposes and releases methane.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I: diverting waste from dumps avoids methane, and the biogas can replace fossil fuel.

  5. The SATAT initiative, launched in 2018, is related to which one of the following?

    1. Solar pumps for farmers
    2. Procurement of compressed biogas by oil marketing companies
    3. Storage of foodgrains in steel silos
    4. Sale of surplus food by restaurants
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Procurement of compressed biogas by oil marketing companies. SATAT (Sustainable Alternative Towards Affordable Transportation) encourages compressed biogas plants by assuring purchase of their output by oil marketing companies.

  6. Consider the following statements:
    1. Operation Greens was first launched to stabilise the supply and prices of tomato, onion and potato.
    2. Pradhan Mantri Kisan SAMPADA Yojana is implemented by the Ministry of Food Processing Industries.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct. Operation Greens began with tomato, onion and potato (TOP) and was later widened; PM Kisan SAMPADA Yojana, an umbrella scheme including cold chain infrastructure, is run by MoFPI.