Pratidin

UPSC current affairs quiz, 4 October 2026

30 Prelims-style questions on the day's news, in the formats UPSC uses (statement-based, How many, Statement-I and II), each with the answer and an explanation. Try each one before you open the answer.

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Education Ministry approves five Centres of Excellence for newer classical languages

  1. With reference to the Centres of Excellence for classical languages approved in October 2026, which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

    1. Classical Pali: Central University of Gujarat
    2. Classical Prakrit: Central University of Odisha
    3. Classical Marathi: Deccan College Post-Graduate and Research Institute, Pune
    4. Classical Bengali: Tezpur University
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Classical Marathi: Deccan College Post-Graduate and Research Institute, Pune. Marathi goes to Deccan College, Pune. Pali is at the Central University of Odisha and Prakrit at the Central University of Gujarat, so (a) and (b) are swapped. Bengali is at Visva-Bharati; Tezpur University hosts Classical Assamese.

  2. Consider the following statements:
    1. Malayalam was declared a classical language before Odia.
    2. Telugu and Kannada were declared classical languages on the same day.
    3. Sanskrit was the first language to be declared classical.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. 1 is correct: Malayalam on 8 August 2013, Odia on 1 March 2014. 2 is correct: both on 31 October 2008. 3 is wrong: Tamil was first (12 October 2004); Sanskrit followed on 25 November 2005.

  3. Consider the following statements about the revised criteria for classical languages (July 2024):
    1. Early texts or recorded history must span 1,500 to 2,000 years.
    2. Only poetry counts as evidence of an ancient literary tradition.
    3. The classical form of the language may be distinct from its modern form.
    4. The language must be listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. 1 and 3 are correct. 2 is wrong: the criteria specifically include knowledge texts, especially prose, besides poetry, plus epigraphic evidence. 4 is wrong: there is no such condition, and Pali and Prakrit, which are classical, are not in the Eighth Schedule.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: The Ministry of Education's new Centres of Excellence for Pali and Prakrit focus heavily on preservation and digitisation of texts.
    Statement-II: Pali and Prakrit survive mainly through religious and literary texts rather than as everyday spoken languages.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Preservation and digitisation is one of the four stated focus areas of all five centres. Because Pali and Prakrit live on mainly in texts such as Buddhist and Jain canons, text work is the core of any support for them, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.

  5. Which one of the following institutions will host the Centre of Excellence for Classical Assamese?

    1. Gauhati University
    2. Visva-Bharati University
    3. Dibrugarh University
    4. Tezpur University
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) Tezpur University. The PIB release names Tezpur University, Assam, for Classical Assamese. Visva-Bharati hosts the Bengali centre; Gauhati and Dibrugarh universities are not on the list.

  6. Consider the following statements:
    1. Classical language status is conferred by an amendment to the Constitution.
    2. The Central Institute of Classical Tamil is located in Chennai.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2 only. 1 is wrong: status is conferred by a Government decision (for example, the Union Cabinet decision of 3 October 2024), not by amending the Constitution. 2 is correct.

Andhra Pradesh moves Supreme Court to restore 34% BC quota in local bodies

  1. With reference to reservation for backward classes in local bodies, consider the following statements:
    1. Articles 243D(6) and 243T(6) of the Constitution make it mandatory for every State to reserve seats for backward classes in panchayats and municipalities.
    2. Under the triple test, a dedicated commission must conduct a contemporaneous empirical inquiry into backwardness in local bodies.
    3. Under the triple test, reservation for SCs, STs and OBCs taken together should not exceed 50% of the seats.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only. 1 is wrong: these are enabling provisions; a State 'may' reserve seats for backward classes (K. Krishna Murthy, 2010). 2 and 3 are the first and third limbs of the triple test laid down in Vikas Kishanrao Gawali (2021).

  2. Consider the following statements:
    1. Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes in panchayats is mandatory under the Constitution.
    2. Reservation of seats for backward classes in panchayats is mandatory under the Constitution.
    3. Seats reserved for SCs and STs in panchayats are in proportion to their population in the area.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. 1 is correct (Article 243D(1)). 2 is wrong: Article 243D(6) only enables the legislature to provide for backward classes. 3 is correct: SC and ST seats are in proportion to their population.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: The Andhra Pradesh High Court quashed the State's orders giving 34% reservation to Backward Classes in rural local bodies.
    Statement-II: The High Court found that total reservation for SCs, STs and BCs exceeded 50% and that the State's data did not meet the requirements of the Gawali framework.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. The breach of the 50% ceiling and the inadequate data were the reasons the court gave for quashing G.O. 105 and G.O. 1065, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.

  4. Consider the following statements about the triple test:
    1. It requires a dedicated commission to study backwardness in local bodies.
    2. It allows a single State-wide percentage to be applied to all local bodies without local body wise assessment.
    3. It caps total SC, ST and OBC reservation at 50%.
    4. It was laid down by a Constitution Bench in 2010.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. 1 and 3 are correct. 2 is wrong: the proportion must be specified local body wise on the commission's recommendations. 4 is wrong: the triple test came from Vikas Kishanrao Gawali (2021), a three-judge Bench; the 2010 Constitution Bench case was K. Krishna Murthy.

  5. In the context of the Andhra Pradesh case, a 'Special Leave Petition' is filed under which Article of the Constitution?

    1. Article 32
    2. Article 226
    3. Article 143
    4. Article 136
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) Article 136. Article 136 lets the Supreme Court grant special leave to appeal from any judgment of any court or tribunal. Article 32 is for enforcing fundamental rights, Article 226 is the High Courts' writ power, and Article 143 is the President's advisory reference.

  6. Consider the following statements:
    1. The Andhra Pradesh High Court allowed the YSRCP's plea to defer local body polls until the Special Intensive Revision is complete.
    2. G.O. Rt. No. 1065 provided 33.33% BC reservation in urban local bodies.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2 only. 1 is wrong: the court dismissed the YSRCP's plea and held that the SIR would not block the elections. 2 is correct.

Karnataka seeks ₹7,142.64 crore in Central drought aid for 177 taluks

  1. With reference to drought relief in India, consider the following statements:
    1. Drought is declared in a district or taluk by the Union Ministry of Home Affairs.
    2. The National Disaster Response Fund is constituted under the Disaster Management Act, 2005.
    3. Assistance from the National Disaster Response Fund is given on the basis of an assessment by an Inter-Ministerial Central Team.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only. 1 is wrong: State governments declare drought, following the Manual for Drought Management. 2 is correct (Section 46). 3 is correct: an IMCT assesses the damage before a High-Level Committee approves NDRF aid.

  2. Consider the following statements about Karnataka's 2026 drought memorandum:
    1. The State estimated drought losses at about ₹46,324 crore.
    2. It sought about ₹7,143 crore from the National Disaster Response Fund.
    3. All 177 drought-hit taluks were declared on a single day.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. 1 and 2 are correct (₹46,324.50 crore and ₹7,142.64 crore). 3 is wrong: taluks were declared in stages, 101 on 27 August, 23 on 17 September and 53 on 22 September.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: The assistance a State seeks from the National Disaster Response Fund is usually much smaller than the total losses it reports.
    Statement-II: NDRF assistance is calculated on fixed norms for specific relief items rather than as compensation for total economic loss.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Karnataka sought ₹7,142.64 crore against losses of ₹46,324.50 crore. The reason is that NDRF aid pays set amounts for items like input subsidy, drinking water and gratuitous relief, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.

  4. Consider the following statements about the Manual for Drought Management (updated 2020):
    1. It uses rainfall-based triggers as the first step.
    2. It uses remote-sensing indices such as NDVI and NDWI as impact indicators.
    3. It requires ground truthing through field surveys.
    4. It makes the Union Government responsible for declaring drought in a district.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. 1, 2 and 3 describe the manual's three-step method. 4 is wrong: State governments declare drought.

  5. Which one of the following assesses damage on the ground before NDRF assistance is approved for a State?

    1. National Disaster Management Authority
    2. Finance Commission
    3. Inter-Ministerial Central Team
    4. National Executive Committee
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Inter-Ministerial Central Team. An Inter-Ministerial Central Team visits and assesses; a High-Level Committee chaired by the Union Home Minister then approves the amount. NDMA frames policy and guidelines; the Finance Commission sizes the funds; the National Executive Committee coordinates response.

  6. Consider the following statements:
    1. The State Disaster Response Fund is constituted under Section 48(1)(a) of the Disaster Management Act, 2005.
    2. Under the 15th Finance Commission scheme for 2021-26, the Centre contributed 90% of the SDRF for all States.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. 1 is correct. 2 is wrong: the Centre:State ratio was 75:25 for general category States and 90:10 for North-Eastern and Himalayan States.

No timeline for Sheikh Hasina's extradition, says India's envoy in Dhaka

  1. With reference to the India-Bangladesh Extradition Treaty, consider the following statements:
    1. It was signed in 2013.
    2. A 2016 amendment removed the requirement for the requesting country to furnish evidence of the offence.
    3. It contains no exception for offences of a political character.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. 1 and 2 are correct. 3 is wrong: Article 6 allows refusal for offences of a political character, though Article 6(2) lists offences such as murder that cannot be treated as political.

  2. Consider the following statements:
    1. Under the India-Bangladesh Extradition Treaty, an extraditable offence must be punishable in both countries.
    2. Article 6(2) of the treaty lists offences, such as murder, that cannot be treated as political offences.
    3. India's extradition procedure is governed by the Extradition Act, 1962.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) All three. All three are correct. Article 2 requires the offence to be punishable in both countries with at least one year's imprisonment; Article 6(2) excludes murder and similar crimes from the political exception; the 1962 Act sets India's procedure.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: India's envoy in Dhaka said in October 2026 that no deadline could be given for Sheikh Hasina's extradition.
    Statement-II: The India-Bangladesh Extradition Treaty bars extradition of any person convicted in absentia.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. Statement-I is correct: the envoy said the request is in a legal process involving courts. Statement-II is not a provision of the treaty; the refusal grounds discussed are the political offence exception (Article 6) and the good faith test (Article 8).

  4. Consider the following statements about the Sheikh Hasina case:
    1. She was sentenced to death in absentia by Bangladesh's International Crimes Tribunal.
    2. India's envoy said she was flown to India by the Indian Air Force.
    3. Bangladesh Prime Minister Tarique Rahman raised her extradition with the Indian envoy in August 2026.
    4. The interim government led by Muhammad Yunus banned the activities of the Awami League.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. 1, 3 and 4 are correct. 2 is wrong: the envoy said she was not brought by Indian forces; she arrived on a Bangladeshi military aircraft.

  5. Which one of the following is NOT a ground in the India-Bangladesh Extradition Treaty on which extradition may be refused?

    1. The person is a former head of government
    2. The offence is of a political character
    3. The accusation is not made in good faith in the interests of justice
    4. The person can be tried in the requested country
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) The person is a former head of government. Article 6 (political offence), Article 8 (good faith, unjust or oppressive) and Article 7 (person can be tried in the requested state) are refusal grounds. Holding a past office is not a ground in the treaty.

  6. Consider the following statements:
    1. The 2016 amendment to the India-Bangladesh Extradition Treaty made it harder to seek extradition by requiring fresh evidence.
    2. Section 31 of India's Extradition Act, 1962 bars surrender where the offence is of a political character.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2 only. 1 is wrong: the amendment made requests easier by dropping the need to furnish evidence. 2 is correct.