Pratidin

UPSC current affairs quiz, 5 October 2026

30 Prelims-style questions on the day's news, in the formats UPSC uses (statement-based, How many, Statement-I and II), each with the answer and an explanation. Try each one before you open the answer.

Read 5 October 2026 first4 October 2026 quizTimed test in the app

Does a valid visa guarantee entry into India? The Delhi High Court says no

  1. With reference to the Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025, consider the following statements:
    1. It repealed the Foreigners Act, 1946 and the Passport (Entry into India) Act, 1920.
    2. Under it, a foreigner may be refused entry on grounds of public health.
    3. It provides for an appeal to the High Court against every refusal of entry by an Immigration Officer.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. Statement 1 is correct: the Act repealed four laws, including these two. Statement 2 is correct: Section 3(1) lists public health among the grounds of inadmissibility. Statement 3 is wrong: the Act says the Immigration Officer's decision on inadmissibility is final and binding; it creates no statutory appeal.

  2. Consider the following statements about the Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025:
    1. It was passed by the Rajya Sabha on 2 April 2025.
    2. It came into force on 1 September 2025.
    3. It gives statutory backing to the Bureau of Immigration.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) All three. Statement 1 is correct: Lok Sabha passed it on 27 March and Rajya Sabha on 2 April 2025. Statement 2 is correct: the MHA notified 1 September 2025 as the commencement date. Statement 3 is correct: the Act establishes a Bureau of Immigration headed by a Commissioner appointed by the Centre.

  3. Consider the following fundamental rights:
    1. Equality before law (Article 14)
    2. Protection of life and personal liberty (Article 21)
    3. Right to reside and settle in any part of India (Article 19(1)(e))
    4. Right to move freely throughout India (Article 19(1)(d))
    How many of the above are available to a foreigner in India?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Articles 14 and 21 use the word 'person' and protect foreigners too. All rights in Article 19, including 19(1)(d) and 19(1)(e), are guaranteed only to citizens. So only two apply.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: A foreign national refused entry at an Indian airport despite holding a valid visa cannot obtain a writ directing that she be admitted.
    Statement-II: A foreign national has no legally enforceable right to enter India, and writ jurisdiction is invoked only where a right is violated.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. This was the Delhi High Court's reasoning: since there is no enforceable right to enter, there is no right whose violation a writ could remedy. Statement-II is the reason for Statement-I.

  5. Consider the following statements:
    1. Under Section 3(1) of the Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025, the decision of the Immigration Officer on a foreigner's inadmissibility is final and binding.
    2. The Act allows entry to be refused only on the ground of national security.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct: the second proviso to Section 3(1) says so. Statement 2 is wrong: the grounds also include sovereignty and integrity, relations with a foreign State, public health and other grounds the Centre may specify.

  6. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that the fundamental right of a foreigner is confined to Article 21 and does not include the right to reside and settle in India?

    1. Hans Muller of Nurenburg v. Superintendent, Presidency Jail (1955)
    2. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978)
    3. Louis De Raedt v. Union of India (1991)
    4. K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017)
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Louis De Raedt v. Union of India (1991). Louis De Raedt (1991), decided by Justices L.M. Sharma and J.S. Verma, contains this holding. Hans Muller (1955) dealt with the executive's unrestricted power to expel. Maneka Gandhi and Puttaswamy are Article 21 cases on fair procedure and privacy.

Official rabies death count is under 1% of ICMR's estimate, clouding the 2030 goal

  1. With reference to rabies in India, consider the following statements:
    1. According to an ICMR-NIE survey published in 2025, dogs account for more than three-fourths of animal bites in India.
    2. The National Action Plan for Dog Mediated Rabies Elimination targets the year 2030.
    3. Rabies, once clinical symptoms appear, can usually be cured with rabies immunoglobulin.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. Statement 1 is correct: the survey attributed 76.8% of bites to dogs. Statement 2 is correct: NAPRE aims at elimination of dog-mediated rabies by 2030. Statement 3 is wrong: WHO describes rabies as almost universally fatal once symptoms appear; immunoglobulin is part of post-exposure prophylaxis given before symptoms.

  2. Consider the following statements about the ICMR-NIE rabies survey published in 2025:
    1. It covered 60 districts across 15 States.
    2. It estimated about 9.1 million animal bites a year in India.
    3. It found that every dog-bite victim surveyed had received at least one dose of anti-rabies vaccine.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct: more than 6 per 1,000 people, about 9.1 million bites nationally. Statement 3 is wrong: over one-fifth of dog-bite victims received no anti-rabies vaccine.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: India's officially reported count of rabies deaths is far lower than independent survey estimates.
    Statement-II: Rabies is a vaccine-preventable disease.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I. Both are true: 54 reported deaths in 2024 against an estimate of 5,726 a year, and rabies is preventable by timely vaccination. But vaccine-preventability does not explain why deaths go unreported; the gap arises from how surveillance captures deaths.

  4. Consider the following:
    1. Making rabies a notifiable disease in all States and UTs
    2. A One Health approach linking human and animal health
    3. Elimination of dog-mediated rabies by 2030
    4. Compulsory culling of street dogs in all cities
    How many of the above are features or aims of the National Action Plan for Dog Mediated Rabies Elimination (NAPRE)?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. 1, 2 and 3 are stated features of NAPRE launched in 2021. 4 is not: India's policy relies on sterilisation and vaccination of street dogs under the Animal Birth Control Rules, 2023, not culling.

  5. Consider the following statements:
    1. Dogs are responsible for up to 99% of human rabies cases, according to WHO.
    2. The Animal Birth Control Rules, 2023 place the responsibility for street dog sterilisation on local authorities.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Statement 1 is correct per WHO. Statement 2 is correct: the government has told Parliament that municipalities are responsible for controlling the stray dog population under the ABC Rules, 2023.

  6. Which institution produced the estimate of 5,726 human rabies deaths a year in India?

    1. National Centre for Disease Control
    2. ICMR-National Institute of Epidemiology, Chennai
    3. Registrar General of India
    4. Animal Welfare Board of India
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) ICMR-National Institute of Epidemiology, Chennai. The estimate came from a household survey by the ICMR-National Institute of Epidemiology, Chennai, published in The Lancet Infectious Diseases in 2025. NCDC runs the routine surveillance that reported 54 deaths in 2024.

One year of two-slab GST: Finance Minister cites a wider base and higher collections

  1. With reference to the GST rate changes recommended by the 56th GST Council meeting in September 2025, consider the following statements:
    1. The standard rate was fixed at 18% and a merit rate at 5%.
    2. A special de-merit rate of 40% was introduced.
    3. Cement was moved from the 28% slab to the 18% slab.
    4. Premiums on individual health insurance were brought into the 5% slab.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 4 only
    2. 1, 2 and 3 only
    3. 2, 3 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 3 only. Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct as per the Council's recommendations. Statement 4 is wrong: individual life and health insurance premiums were exempted (nil), not placed at 5%.

  2. Consider the following statements about the GST Council:
    1. It is chaired by the Union Finance Minister.
    2. The Union government's vote carries one-third of the total weight.
    3. Its recommendations are binding on Parliament and State legislatures, as held by the Supreme Court in 2022.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct: the Centre has one-third and the States together two-thirds of the weighted votes, and decisions need three-fourths of weighted votes. Statement 3 is wrong: in Mohit Minerals (2022) the Supreme Court held the recommendations persuasive, not binding.

  3. Consider the following items:
    1. Petroleum crude
    2. Aviation turbine fuel
    3. Natural gas
    4. Alcoholic liquor for human consumption
    How many of the above are currently outside the levy of GST?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) All four. Items 1 to 3 are among the five petroleum products that Article 279A(5) keeps outside GST until the Council recommends a date. Item 4 is excluded by the definition of GST in Article 366(12A). So all four are outside GST.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Businesses that use diesel cannot claim input tax credit for the taxes paid on it.
    Statement-II: High speed diesel is outside the GST levy until the GST Council recommends a date for its inclusion.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Input tax credit is available only for GST paid. Diesel is taxed through excise duty and State VAT, not GST, because Article 279A(5) keeps it outside GST. Statement-II therefore explains Statement-I.

  5. Consider the following statements regarding the September 2025 GST changes:
    1. Small cars and motorcycles up to 350 cc moved from 28% to 18%.
    2. Tobacco products were moved to the 40% rate from 22 September 2025 along with other goods.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: changes for tobacco products such as pan masala and cigarettes were deferred until compensation cess obligations are met.

  6. According to official data released on 1 October 2026, what was the growth in gross GST collections for April to September 2026 over the same period of the previous year?

    1. 8.2%
    2. 11.6%
    3. 14.7%
    4. 18.1%
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 11.6%. Cumulative gross collections were ₹12,46,278 crore, up 11.6%. 14.7% was the growth in September alone, and 18.1% the growth in September's net collection.

Op-ed: Over-regulation is stifling India's universities; one regulator may not fix it

  1. With reference to the Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan Bill, 2025, consider the following statements:
    1. It proposes to replace the University Grants Commission, the AICTE and the NCTE.
    2. It gives the proposed Commission the power to disburse grants to universities.
    3. It was referred to a Joint Parliamentary Committee after its introduction in the Lok Sabha.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: funding is kept outside the Commission and would be disbursed through the Ministry of Education. Statement 3 is correct: the Bill was introduced on 15 December 2025 and referred to a JPC on 16 December 2025.

  2. Consider the following statements about the Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan Bill, 2025:
    1. It was introduced by the Ministry of Education.
    2. The proposed Commission will have three councils for regulation, standards and accreditation.
    3. It covers medical and legal education along with technical education.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: the Bill covers technical education, teacher education and architecture, while medical, legal and other professional courses are excluded.

  3. Consider the following institutions/bodies:
    1. University Grants Commission
    2. All India Council for Technical Education
    3. National Council for Teacher Education
    4. National Medical Commission
    How many of the above does the VBSA Bill, 2025 propose to replace?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. The Bill dissolves the UGC, AICTE and NCTE. Medical education is excluded from its scope, so the National Medical Commission is not replaced.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Under the VBSA Bill, 2025, the proposed Commission will not disburse grants to higher education institutions.
    Statement-II: The National Education Policy 2020 recommended separating the functions of regulation, accreditation, funding and academic standard-setting.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. Funding stays with the Education Ministry under the Bill, which follows NEP 2020's principle that the regulator should not also be the funder. Statement-II explains Statement-I.

  5. Consider the following statements:
    1. Under UGC's 2018 regulations, teachers must be available in the university or college for at least 5 hours daily.
    2. The UGC was given statutory status by an Act of Parliament in 1956.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Statement 1 is correct per the workload clause of the 2018 regulations. Statement 2 is correct: the UGC, set up in 1953, became a statutory body under the UGC Act, 1956.

  6. Under which entry of the Seventh Schedule does Parliament make laws on coordination and determination of standards in institutions for higher education?

    1. Entry 25 of the Concurrent List
    2. Entry 66 of the Union List
    3. Entry 11 of the State List
    4. Entry 32 of the State List
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Entry 66 of the Union List. Entry 66 of List I (Union List) covers coordination and determination of standards in higher education and research, the basis of the UGC Act and the VBSA Bill. Entry 25 of the Concurrent List covers education generally, subject to Entries 63 to 66 of List I.

Op-ed: In a trade deal with the US, India should value terms that are hard to reverse

  1. With reference to United States trade law, consider the following statements:
    1. Section 232 of the Trade Expansion Act, 1962 allows tariffs on grounds of national security.
    2. Section 122 of the Trade Act, 1974 allows a temporary import surcharge to address balance-of-payments problems.
    3. In February 2026, the US Supreme Court upheld the use of the International Emergency Economic Powers Act to impose reciprocal tariffs.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: in Learning Resources v. Trump (20 February 2026) the Court held, 6 to 3, that IEEPA does not authorise tariffs, and struck the reciprocal tariffs down.

  2. Consider the following statements about the India-US framework for an interim trade agreement announced in February 2026:
    1. It set a US reciprocal tariff of 18% on Indian goods.
    2. India stated an intention to purchase $500 billion of US energy, aircraft, technology and other products over five years.
    3. It made India a party to a binding ceiling on all future US tariffs.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct as per the framework. Statement 3 is wrong: there is no binding ceiling on US tariffs; that is precisely what the op-ed says India should seek.

  3. Consider the following US laws:
    1. Section 232 of the Trade Expansion Act, 1962
    2. Section 301 of the Trade Act, 1974
    3. Section 122 of the Trade Act, 1974
    4. International Emergency Economic Powers Act, 1977
    How many of the above remain available to the US President as a basis for imposing tariffs after the US Supreme Court's ruling of 20 February 2026?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Sections 232, 301 and 122 remain available. The Court held that IEEPA does not authorise tariffs, so it is no longer a valid basis.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: The US Supreme Court's ruling against IEEPA tariffs did not end uncertainty about US tariffs on Indian goods.
    Statement-II: The US President can still impose tariffs under other statutes such as Section 232 and Section 301.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are true, and the continuing availability of other tariff laws is why uncertainty persists. Statement-II explains Statement-I.

  5. Consider the following statements:
    1. Under WTO rules, a 'bound' tariff is a ceiling that a member commits not to exceed.
    2. The most-favoured-nation principle requires a WTO member to give all members treatment no less favourable than it gives any member, subject to exceptions such as free trade agreements.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct. Bound rates are listed in each member's schedule under GATT Article II, and MFN is in GATT Article I, with Article XXIV allowing free trade areas and customs unions as an exception.

  6. The International Emergency Economic Powers Act (IEEPA), recently in the news, is a law of which country?

    1. United Kingdom
    2. United States
    3. Canada
    4. Australia
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) United States. IEEPA is a 1977 US law giving the President powers in national emergencies. The US Supreme Court held in February 2026 that it does not allow tariffs.