Pratidin

UPSC current affairs quiz, 14 October 2026

24 Prelims-style questions on the day's news, in the formats UPSC uses (statement-based, How many, Statement-I and II), each with the answer and an explanation. Try each one before you open the answer.

Read 14 October 2026 first13 October 2026 quizTimed test in the app

IMF lifts India's 2026-27 growth forecast to 7%, warns global risks tilt downward

  1. With reference to the IMF's World Economic Outlook of October 2026, consider the following statements:
    1. It projects India's GDP growth at 7% for 2026-27.
    2. It projects India's CPI inflation for 2026-27 below the RBI's target of 4%.
    3. It projects emerging market and developing economies to grow faster in 2026 than in 2025.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Only one. Only statement 1 is correct. The IMF projects India's CPI inflation at 5% for 2026-27, above the 4% target (statement 2 is wrong). Emerging and developing economies are projected to slow from 4.5% in 2025 to 3.7% in 2026 (statement 3 is wrong).

  2. Consider the following statements about the IMF's October 2026 World Economic Outlook:
    1. It projects world growth to be higher in 2027 than in 2026.
    2. It projects advanced economies to grow faster than emerging market and developing economies in 2026.
    3. It projects global inflation to be lower in 2027 than in 2026.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is correct: 3.4% in 2027 against 3.1% in 2026. Statement 2 is wrong: advanced economies 2.1% against 3.7% for emerging and developing economies. Statement 3 is correct: 4.1% in 2027 against 4.7% in 2026.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: The IMF expects India's current account deficit to widen in 2026-27.
    Statement-II: The IMF assumes crude oil prices in 2026 will be about 41% higher than in 2025.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. The IMF projects the deficit at 1.5% of GDP in 2026-27 and assumes oil at $95.74 a barrel in 2026. India is a large oil importer, so costlier oil raises the import bill and widens the current account deficit; Statement-II explains Statement-I.

  4. Consider the following statements about India's flexible inflation targeting framework:
    1. The inflation target is set by the Monetary Policy Committee of the RBI.
    2. The target is based on the Consumer Price Index.
    3. The tolerance band around the 4% target is 2% to 6%.
    4. The target was first notified in 2016.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Statement 1 is wrong: under Section 45ZA of the RBI Act, the Central Government sets the target in consultation with the RBI. Statements 2, 3 and 4 are correct: the target is CPI-based, the band is 2% to 6%, and it was first notified on 5 August 2016.

  5. With reference to the balance of payments, which of the following are part of the current account?
    1. Trade in goods
    2. Trade in services
    3. Remittances from workers abroad
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3. All three are current account items: goods trade forms the balance of trade, while services and remittances are invisibles.

  6. The IMF says India's growth upgrade reflects "growing evidence of stronger growth potential". Potential growth refers to:

    1. The highest growth an economy has ever recorded
    2. The growth rate an economy can sustain over time without pushing up inflation
    3. The growth rate targeted in the Union Budget
    4. Growth measured at purchasing power parity
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) The growth rate an economy can sustain over time without pushing up inflation. Potential growth is the sustainable rate set by labour, capital and productivity; growing above it for long tends to raise inflation. The other options describe a record, a budget assumption and a measurement method.

First BIMSTEC Home Ministers' meeting adopts Delhi Declaration against cross-border terror

  1. Consider the following statements about BIMSTEC:
    1. It was set up through the Bangkok Declaration of 1997.
    2. Its permanent secretariat is in Kathmandu.
    3. Its Charter was adopted at the Colombo Summit in 2022.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 3 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only. Statement 1 is correct: BIMSTEC was founded on 6 June 1997 through the Bangkok Declaration. Statement 2 is wrong: the secretariat was set up in Dhaka in 2014. Statement 3 is correct: the Charter was adopted at the Fifth Summit in Colombo on 30 March 2022.

  2. Consider the following instruments:
    1. A Plan of Action on Illicit Financial Flows
    2. A Plan of Action on Drug Control
    3. An extradition convention
    How many of the above were approved at the first BIMSTEC Home Ministers' meeting?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. The plans of action on illicit financial flows and on drug control were among the five instruments approved. The extradition convention is still proposed; the declaration only urges its early finalisation.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: India hosted the first meeting of BIMSTEC Home Ministers.
    Statement-II: India leads BIMSTEC's Security pillar, which includes counter-terrorism and transnational crime.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I. Both are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I. India hosted the meeting because the Prime Minister committed to it at the Sixth Summit, after the Kathmandu Summit decided on such meetings; leading the Security pillar is a separate arrangement under the Charter.

  4. Arrange the following members in the order in which they joined BIMSTEC (earliest first):
    1. Myanmar
    2. Thailand
    3. Bhutan
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1-2-3
    2. 2-1-3
    3. 2-3-1
    4. 3-1-2
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2-1-3. Thailand was a founding member in June 1997, Myanmar joined in December 1997, and Bhutan joined in 2004.

  5. Consider the following statements about BIMSTEC summits:
    1. The 2008 Summit was held in New Delhi.
    2. The 2022 Summit in Colombo adopted the Charter.
    3. The Sixth Summit was held in Bangkok in April 2025.
    4. The 2018 Summit was held in Dhaka.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Statement 4 is wrong: the 2018 Summit was held in Kathmandu; Dhaka hosts the secretariat.

  6. Which BIMSTEC member leads the 'Connectivity' pillar?

    1. India
    2. Bangladesh
    3. Thailand
    4. Sri Lanka
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Thailand. Thailand leads Connectivity. India leads Security, Bangladesh leads Trade, Investment and Development, and Sri Lanka leads Science, Technology and Innovation.

Madras HC upholds AIADMK MLAs' resignations but says disqualification cases must go on

  1. With reference to the resignation of a member of a State Legislative Assembly, consider the following statements:
    1. A member resigns by writing under his hand addressed to the Speaker.
    2. The Speaker must not accept the resignation if satisfied that it is not voluntary or genuine.
    3. Once a resignation is accepted, pending disqualification proceedings under the Tenth Schedule automatically lapse.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only. Statements 1 and 2 restate Article 190(3)(b) and its proviso. Statement 3 is wrong: the Supreme Court in 2019 and the Madras High Court in October 2026 held that resignation does not end pending disqualification proceedings.

  2. Under the Tenth Schedule, which of the following can lead to the disqualification of a member of a State Legislative Assembly?
    1. Voluntarily giving up membership of the political party
    2. Voting contrary to the party's direction in the House
    3. A merger of the party supported by two-thirds of its legislators
    How many of the above are grounds for disqualification?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. 1 and 2 are grounds for disqualification. 3 is an exception: a merger backed by two-thirds of the legislature party does not attract disqualification.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: A legislator who resigns can still face disqualification proceedings for acts done before resigning.
    Statement-II: The Supreme Court has held that the taint of disqualification does not vanish when a member tenders a resignation.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I: the 2019 Karnataka MLAs ruling held that the taint does not 'vaporise' on resignation, which is why proceedings can continue.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    1. The 91st Amendment omitted the exception for a split by one-third of a legislature party.
    2. A disqualified defector is barred from contesting by-elections until the end of the House's term.
    3. Kihoto Hollohan (1992) struck down the bar on judicial review in paragraph 7 of the Tenth Schedule.
    4. The Tenth Schedule was added by the 42nd Amendment.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the Supreme Court held in 2019 that the Speaker cannot bar a disqualified member from contesting. Statement 4 is wrong: the Tenth Schedule came through the 52nd Amendment (1985).

  5. In the Madras High Court's ruling of October 2026, what is the Speaker required to check before accepting a resignation?

    1. The member's reasons for leaving the party
    2. Whether the party has consented to the resignation
    3. Whether a by-election can be held within six months
    4. Whether the resignation is voluntary and genuine
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) Whether the resignation is voluntary and genuine. The Court held that the Speaker checks whether the resignation is genuine and voluntary, as the proviso to Article 190(3) requires, and need not inquire into motives. Party consent is not required.

  6. With reference to the Tamil Nadu confidence vote of 13 May 2026, consider the following statements:
    1. TVK had won a majority on its own in the Assembly election.
    2. 25 AIADMK MLAs voted for the TVK government.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2 only. Statement 1 is wrong: TVK won 108 seats, ten short of the 118 needed. Statement 2 is correct: 25 AIADMK MLAs voted for the government, which won with 144 votes.

NPCI defers 0.4% UPI merchant fee, due on 15 October, until after Diwali

  1. With reference to the UPI merchant discount rate (MDR) framework of 2026, consider the following statements:
    1. MDR is charged to the customer making the payment.
    2. Person-to-person UPI transfers are exempt from MDR.
    3. Merchant payments of ₹2,000 or less attract zero MDR.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is wrong: MDR is charged to the merchant, not added to the customer's payment. Statements 2 and 3 are correct: P2P transfers stay free, and merchant payments up to ₹2,000 remain at zero MDR.

  2. Consider the following statements about the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI):
    1. It is a not-for-profit company.
    2. It was set up as a joint initiative of the RBI and the Indian Banks' Association.
    3. It operates RuPay and IMPS in addition to UPI.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) All three. All three are correct: NPCI was incorporated in December 2008 as a not-for-profit company, as a joint initiative of the RBI and the IBA, and operates UPI, IMPS, RuPay and NACH.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Merchants have not been charged MDR on UPI payments since 1 January 2020.
    Statement-II: Section 10A of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007 bars banks and system providers from levying MDR on prescribed electronic payment modes.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I: Section 10A, inserted in 2019, is the legal basis of zero MDR on BHIM-UPI and RuPay debit cards from 1 January 2020.

  4. Under the 2026 UPI MDR framework, how much MDR would a merchant (not a small merchant) pay on an eligible UPI payment of ₹1,00,000?

    1. ₹0
    2. ₹5
    3. ₹300
    4. ₹400
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) ₹300. 0.4% of ₹1,00,000 is ₹400, but the MDR is capped at ₹300 per payment, so the merchant pays ₹300.

  5. Consider the following UPI payments:
    1. A ₹5,000 transfer from one friend to another
    2. A ₹1,500 payment at a large retail store
    3. A ₹10,000 payment at a large retail store
    4. A ₹1,800 payment at a small merchant receiving ₹50,000 a month through UPI
    How many of the above would attract a 0.4% MDR under the 2026 framework?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Only one. Only payment 3 attracts 0.4%. Payment 1 is person-to-person and free; payment 2 is below ₹2,000; payment 4 is below ₹2,000 and the merchant is under the ₹1 lakh a month small-merchant threshold.

  6. Which of the following best describes the merchant discount rate?

    1. A tax levied by the government on digital transactions
    2. A fee charged to the merchant for accepting a digital payment
    3. An interest rate paid by the RBI on bank deposits
    4. A surcharge added to the customer's bill for card payments
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) A fee charged to the merchant for accepting a digital payment. MDR is a fee charged to the merchant and shared among banks, payment providers and the network. It is not a tax and is not added to the customer's payment.