UPSC current affairs quiz, 16 October 2026
24 Prelims-style questions on the day's news, in the formats UPSC uses (statement-based, How many, Statement-I and II), each with the answer and an explanation. Try each one before you open the answer.
SC: converts cannot carry pre-conversion caste status into the Backward Class Muslim quota
Under paragraph 3 of the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950, a person can be deemed a member of a Scheduled Caste only if he or she professes:
- Hinduism only
- Hinduism or Sikhism only
- Hinduism, Sikhism or Buddhism
- Any religion, if the caste is listed
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Answer: (c) Hinduism, Sikhism or Buddhism. Paragraph 3 limits Scheduled Caste status to persons professing Hinduism, Sikhism or Buddhism. Sikhs were added in 1956 and Buddhists in 1990 by Acts of Parliament under Article 341(2). The Supreme Court relied on this paragraph in its 15 October 2026 ruling.
Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court ruling of 15 October 2026:
1. It upheld a Madras High Court judgment striking down a Tamil Nadu government order of 2024.
2. It held that a convert from the Hindu social order cannot claim Article 16(4) benefits merely on pre-conversion backwardness.
3. It held that a person who reconverts to Hinduism automatically regains Scheduled Caste status.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
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Answer: (b) Only two. 1 is correct: the Court upheld the High Court's 25 June 2026 ruling against G.O. (Ms) No. 31 of 2024. 2 is correct: this was the core holding. 3 is incorrect: the Court said reconversion requires a separate, fact-specific determination; status does not revive automatically.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: A person who converts from Hinduism to Islam ceases to be a member of a Scheduled Caste.
Statement-II: Paragraph 3 of the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950 limits Scheduled Caste status to persons professing Hinduism, Sikhism or Buddhism.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
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Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct, and the religious condition in paragraph 3 is exactly why a convert to Islam loses SC status, as the Supreme Court noted.
Consider the following statements:
1. The President specifies Scheduled Castes under Article 341.
2. Parliament can include or exclude castes from the list notified under Article 341.
3. Sikhs were brought within paragraph 3 of the SC Order in 1990 and Buddhists in 1956.
4. The K.G. Balakrishnan Commission was set up in 2022 to examine SC status for converts.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (c) Only three. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. Under Article 341(2) Parliament can amend the list. 3 is incorrect: the years are reversed; Sikhs were added in 1956 and Buddhists in 1990. The Balakrishnan Commission was constituted in October 2022.
In the Tamil Nadu case, why was the applicant's claim to be a 'Muslim Lebbai' rejected?
- He had not registered his conversion in the Gazette
- Membership of the community could not be acquired by the mere act of conversion
- Lebbais are not a notified Backward Class Muslim community
- He was not a resident of Tamil Nadu
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Answer: (b) Membership of the community could not be acquired by the mere act of conversion. The Tahsildar said he had converted to a religion, not to a caste, and the courts agreed that a declaration of conversion does not prove membership of a historically formed community. His conversion was notified in the Gazette in 2016, and Labbais are one of the seven notified communities.
Which of the following statements about the Tamil Nadu ruling is/are correct?
1. The Court held that a Jamath may certify a conversion but cannot conclusively decide statutory community status.
2. The Court held that no convert can ever be treated as backward in the new community.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
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Answer: (a) 1 only. 1 is correct. 2 is incorrect: the ruling leaves open whether a convert can independently establish backwardness within the new community on evidence; it only rejects automatic transfer of earlier status.
Goods exports jump 23% to $44.4 billion in September 2026 as the trade deficit narrows
In India's September 2026 trade data, which of the following export sectors recorded the highest year-on-year growth?
- Engineering goods
- Electronic goods
- Petroleum products
- Organic and inorganic chemicals
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Answer: (b) Electronic goods. Electronic goods exports rose 70.44% to $5.31 billion. Petroleum products rose 31.90%, chemicals 24.21% and engineering goods 20.91%, though engineering goods remain the largest category at $12.17 billion.
Consider the following statements about India's trade in September 2026:
1. Merchandise exports grew faster than merchandise imports.
2. Estimated services exports were higher than in September 2025.
3. The merchandise trade deficit was smaller than in September 2025.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
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Answer: (b) Only two. 1 is correct: exports grew 23.04%, imports about 8%. 2 is incorrect: services exports were an estimated $36.35 billion against $36.67 billion. 3 is correct: $30.21 billion against $33 billion.
Consider the following statements about India's trade in April to September 2026-27:
1. Merchandise exports grew by more than 15%.
2. The merchandise trade deficit narrowed compared with the same period of 2025-26.
3. The services trade balance was in surplus.
4. The overall (goods plus services) trade deficit was larger than a year earlier.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (c) Only three. 1 is correct: 18.51%. 2 is incorrect: the goods deficit widened to $177.64 billion from $156.88 billion. 3 is correct: a $102.71 billion surplus. 4 is correct: $74.93 billion against $58.10 billion.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: India's overall trade deficit in April to September 2026-27 was much smaller than its merchandise trade deficit.
Statement-II: India earned a large surplus on services trade in the same period.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
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Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. The overall deficit was $74.93 billion against a goods deficit of $177.64 billion, and the gap is explained by the $102.71 billion services surplus.
With reference to the current account of India's balance of payments, which of the following are included?
1. Merchandise trade balance
2. Net services trade
3. Foreign direct investment inflows
Select the correct answer using the code given below.- 1 only
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
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Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only. The current account covers goods trade, services (invisibles), income and transfers. FDI is recorded in the capital (financial) account, not the current account.
Why do analysts track 'non-petroleum and non-gems and jewellery' exports?
- Because these items are not covered by Commerce Ministry data
- Because petroleum and gems and jewellery values swing with global commodity prices and can mask underlying trends
- Because these two items are banned from export
- Because they are counted under services exports
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Answer: (b) Because petroleum and gems and jewellery values swing with global commodity prices and can mask underlying trends. Petroleum exports depend heavily on crude prices and gems and jewellery on gold prices. Removing them gives a clearer picture of broad-based export performance; these core exports were $203.41 billion in April to September 2026-27.
Op-ed: A contested UNSC race with Tajikistan tests India's standing with the Global South
Consider the following statements about elections to the UN Security Council:
1. Non-permanent members are elected by the General Assembly for two-year terms.
2. A retiring non-permanent member is eligible for immediate re-election.
3. A candidate needs a two-thirds majority of members present and voting, even if unopposed.
Which of the statements given above are correct?- 1 and 2 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
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Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only. 1 and 3 are correct. 2 is incorrect: Article 23 of the UN Charter bars a retiring non-permanent member from immediate re-election.
Consider the following statements about India's UN Security Council record:
1. India has served eight terms as a non-permanent member.
2. India has never lost a contested election to the Council.
3. India's most recent term was 2021-22.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. 1 and 3 are correct. 2 is incorrect: India lost contested elections to Pakistan in 1975 and Japan in 1996.
Consider the following statements about the UN Security Council:
1. It has 15 members, of which 5 are permanent.
2. It was last expanded in 1965.
3. Elections to non-permanent seats are now held in June.
4. Non-permanent members serve three-year terms.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (c) Only three. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. 4 is incorrect: non-permanent members serve two-year terms.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: If all 193 members vote, India would need at least 129 votes in the 2027 election even if it were the only candidate.
Statement-II: Election to a non-permanent seat requires a two-thirds majority of members present and voting.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
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Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. The two-thirds rule applies even to unopposed candidates; with all 193 members voting, two-thirds is 129. Statement-I follows directly from Statement-II.
Ayni and Farkhor, mentioned in the context of India's UNSC bid, are associated with which country?
- Kazakhstan
- Tajikistan
- Kyrgyzstan
- Afghanistan
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Answer: (b) Tajikistan. Tajikistan hosted Indian facilities at Ayni and Farkhor during the Afghan conflict, which the op-ed cites to show Tajikistan's strategic importance to India.
Which of the following options does the op-ed lay out for India in the 2028-29 contest?
1. Contest the election against Tajikistan
2. Persuade Tajikistan to withdraw
3. Withdraw India's own candidature
Select the correct answer using the code given below.- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
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Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3. The article lays out all three options, and also mentions sharing the two-year term between the candidates, which needs mutual agreement.
EC orders Special Summary Revision of voter rolls in 17 States and UTs ahead of 2027 polls
The preparation and revision of electoral rolls for Assembly constituencies is provided for mainly under:
- Section 21 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950
- Section 123 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951
- Article 329 of the Constitution
- The Delimitation Act, 2002
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Answer: (a) Section 21 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950. Section 21 of the RP Act, 1950 deals with the preparation and revision of electoral rolls, and the October 2026 SSR was ordered under it. Section 123 of the 1951 Act defines corrupt practices, and Article 329 bars courts from interfering in electoral matters.
Consider the following statements about the Special Summary Revision ordered in October 2026:
1. It covers 17 States and Union Territories.
2. Its qualifying date is 1 January 2027.
3. It includes Delhi and Maharashtra.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
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Answer: (b) Only two. 1 and 2 are correct. 3 is incorrect: Delhi and Maharashtra are among the States and UTs with an ongoing or recent SIR, which will get a separate schedule.
Consider the following statements:
1. Article 324 vests the superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls in the Election Commission.
2. Article 326 provides for elections on the basis of adult suffrage.
3. Section 21 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 deals with revision of electoral rolls.
4. A person must be at least 21 years old to be registered as a voter.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. 1 and 2 are correct. 3 is incorrect: Section 21 is in the RP Act, 1950, which deals with rolls; the 1951 Act deals with conduct of elections. 4 is incorrect: the voting age is 18 under Article 326.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: A young person need not wait a whole year after turning 18 to apply for enrolment as a voter.
Statement-II: Since a 2021 amendment, the law provides four qualifying dates in a year for enrolment.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. The four qualifying dates (1 January, 1 April, 1 July, 1 October) are exactly why a new voter no longer waits up to a year to enrol.
Which of the following is a feature of a Special Summary Revision as distinct from a Special Intensive Revision?
- Fresh house-to-house enumeration of all electors
- Updating the existing roll through claims and objections on a draft roll
- Mandatory proof of citizenship from every elector
- Suspension of Form 6 applications
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Answer: (b) Updating the existing roll through claims and objections on a draft roll. An SSR updates the existing roll: a draft is published and people file claims and objections. Fresh house-to-house enumeration is the hallmark of an intensive revision.
With reference to the October 2026 SSR order, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Officials connected with the SSR cannot be transferred without the Commission's prior approval until final publication of the rolls.
2. An application for inclusion can be rejected if the applicant does not provide an Aadhaar number.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 only. 1 is correct: a transfer freeze applies from draft to final publication. 2 is incorrect: Aadhaar is voluntary and the ECI says no inclusion will be refused for not providing it.