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UPSC current affairs quiz, 22 October 2026

30 Prelims-style questions on the day's news, in the formats UPSC uses (statement-based, How many, Statement-I and II), each with the answer and an explanation. Try each one before you open the answer.

Read 22 October 2026 first21 October 2026 quiz23 October 2026 quizTimed test in the app

Core sector grows 7.9% in September 2026, fastest since the new series began

  1. In the Index of Core Industries with base year 2022-23, which one of the following industries carries the highest weight?

    1. Refinery products
    2. Steel
    3. Electricity
    4. Coal
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Electricity. Electricity carries 30.93% of the weight in the 2022-23 series, ahead of refinery products (22.57%), steel (17.58%) and coal (5.60%). In the old 2011-12 series refinery products had the highest weight, so this has changed.

  2. Consider the following statements about the new Index of Core Industries:
    1. Its base year is 2022-23.
    2. Iron ore has been added as a ninth industry.
    3. Core industries carry a larger share of the IIP's weight than in the 2011-12 series.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is correct: the base moved from 2011-12 to 2022-23 on 20 July 2026. Statement 2 is correct: iron ore is the ninth industry. Statement 3 is incorrect: the share fell from 40.27% to 32.88%.

  3. Consider the following statements about core sector data for September 2026:
    1. Iron ore recorded the highest growth among the nine industries.
    2. Coal output contracted.
    3. Fertiliser output contracted.
    4. Cumulative growth for April to September 2026 was higher than in the same period of 2025.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Statement 1 is correct: iron ore grew 18.4%. Statement 2 is incorrect: coal grew 10.7% (it had contracted in August). Statement 3 is correct: fertilisers fell 11.7%. Statement 4 is correct: 5.1% against 2.5%.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Strong electricity and refinery output has an outsized effect on the headline Index of Core Industries.
    Statement-II: Electricity and refinery products together carry more than half the weight in the 2022-23 base Index of Core Industries.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Electricity (30.93%) and refinery products (22.57%) together weigh about 53.5%, so their growth moves the weighted index more than any other industries. Statement-II is the reason for Statement-I.

  5. Which one of the following compiles and releases the monthly Index of Core Industries?

    1. National Statistics Office, Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
    2. Reserve Bank of India
    3. Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance
    4. Office of Economic Adviser, Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) Office of Economic Adviser, Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade. The Office of Economic Adviser in DPIIT, Ministry of Commerce and Industry, compiles the ICI (and the WPI). The NSO compiles the IIP, not the ICI.

  6. Consider the following statements:
    1. The 7.9% growth reported for September 2026 is a provisional estimate.
    2. Growth for August 2026 was revised downward in the final estimate.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct: the September figure is provisional. Statement 2 is incorrect: August growth was revised upward, from 4.8% to 5.9%.

Eight eMudhra certificate keys found trivially weak, and browsers pull their trust

  1. With reference to the Controller of Certifying Authorities (CCA) in India, consider the following statements:
    1. It is appointed under the Information Technology Act, 2000.
    2. It set up the Root Certifying Authority of India, which signs the public keys of licensed certifying authorities.
    3. It functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. Statement 1 is correct: the CCA is appointed under Section 17 of the IT Act, 2000. Statement 2 is correct: the Root Certifying Authority of India was set up under Section 18(b) and signs CAs' public keys. Statement 3 is incorrect: the CCA is under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.

  2. Consider the following statements about the eMudhra key compromise:
    1. The compromised keys belonged to intermediate certificates, not end-user website certificates.
    2. Each compromised key was an integer below 256.
    3. All eight compromised certificates were meant only for code signing.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is correct: eight intermediate certificates were affected. Statement 2 is correct: all eight keys were below 256. Statement 3 is incorrect: six were TLS (website) intermediates and only two were for code signing.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Browsers could protect users from eMudhra's weak keys without waiting for every website to act.
    Statement-II: Browser makers can centrally block or distrust intermediate and root certificates through updates to their trust lists.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Mozilla blocked the certificates through OneCRL on 17 October 2026, and Chrome, Apple and Microsoft followed. This central control over trust lists (Statement-II) is why users were protected quickly (Statement-I).

  4. Consider the following statements about India's legal framework for digital signatures:
    1. Section 3 of the IT Act, 2000 provides for authentication of electronic records by digital signature.
    2. The Controller of Certifying Authorities is appointed under Section 17 of the IT Act, 2000.
    3. The Root Certifying Authority of India was set up under Section 18(b) of the IT Act, 2000.
    4. CERT-In's directions of April 2022 require cyber incidents to be reported within 72 hours.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct, as stated on the CCA's own website. Statement 4 is incorrect: the 28 April 2022 directions require reporting within six hours. The 72-hour window belongs to the DPDP Rules for detailed breach reports to the Data Protection Board.

  5. Which one of the following best describes why a P-384 private key that is an integer below 256 is insecure?

    1. It cannot be used to sign certificates
    2. It can be recovered by trying every possible value, at most 256 of them
    3. It is rejected by all browsers by default
    4. It exposes the root certificate's public key
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) It can be recovered by trying every possible value, at most 256 of them. A P-384 key should be a random number about 384 bits long, far too many possibilities to try. A key below 256 can be found by testing at most 256 values, which is what happened with eMudhra's eight keys. Public keys are meant to be public, so option (d) misreads the risk.

  6. Consider the following statements:
    1. eMudhra said its Indian digital signature certificate and eSign services were operating normally after the incident.
    2. Mozilla removed trust in all of eMudhra's root certificates.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct: eMudhra's 21 October 2026 release said so. Statement 2 is incorrect: Mozilla moved to distrust the emSign ECC Root CA - G3 but did not remove trust in the emSign Root CA - G1.

Turkiye, Qatar, Pakistan and Indonesia sign the 'Badr' defence industry pact in Doha

  1. Which one of the following groups of countries signed the 'Badr' memorandum on defence industry cooperation in October 2026?

    1. Saudi Arabia, Turkiye, Pakistan and Egypt
    2. Turkiye, Qatar, Pakistan and Indonesia
    3. Qatar, Iran, Pakistan and Malaysia
    4. Turkiye, Azerbaijan, Pakistan and Indonesia
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Turkiye, Qatar, Pakistan and Indonesia. Badr was signed in Doha on 21 October 2026 by Turkiye, Qatar, Pakistan and Indonesia. Saudi Arabia is part of the separate Mecca Joint Defence Agreement with Turkiye and Pakistan, not Badr.

  2. Consider the following statements about the Badr memorandum of October 2026:
    1. It was signed in Doha.
    2. Saudi Arabia is one of its signatories.
    3. It is reported to contain a clause treating an attack on one member as an attack on all.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Only one. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect: the signatories are Turkiye, Qatar, Pakistan and Indonesia. Statement 3 is incorrect: no mutual defence clause has been reported; that clause belongs to the Mecca Joint Defence Agreement.

  3. Consider the following statements about the Mecca Joint Defence Agreement:
    1. It was signed in August 2026.
    2. Its parties are Saudi Arabia, Turkiye and Pakistan.
    3. It treats an armed attack on any one party as an attack on all.
    4. Qatar is a party to it.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct: it was signed in Mecca on 7 August 2026 by the leaders of Saudi Arabia, Turkiye and Pakistan, with an attack-on-one clause. Statement 4 is incorrect: Qatar is in the Badr memorandum, not the Mecca agreement.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Pakistan is a party to both the Mecca Joint Defence Agreement and the Badr memorandum.
    Statement-II: The Badr memorandum creates a mutual defence obligation among its members.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. Statement-I is correct: Pakistan signed both. Statement-II is incorrect: Badr is a memorandum on defence industry cooperation, and no mutual defence clause has been reported.

  5. Which one of the signatories of the Badr memorandum is also a member of NATO?

    1. Qatar
    2. Pakistan
    3. Indonesia
    4. Turkiye
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) Turkiye. Turkiye joined NATO in 1952. Qatar, Pakistan and Indonesia are not NATO members.

  6. Consider the following statements about the Badr memorandum:
    1. According to the Qatar News Agency, other friendly countries may join it under criteria agreed by the four signatories.
    2. Indonesia was represented at the signing by its Deputy Defence Minister.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct. The Qatar News Agency said other friendly countries may join on agreed criteria, and Indonesia was represented by its Deputy Defence Minister, while Turkiye, Qatar and Pakistan were represented by their defence ministers.

How exposed is India to foreign technology, from satellites and cloud to arms?

  1. Why can India's NavIC system not provide standalone positioning services as of 2026?

    1. It has been merged with the US GPS
    2. Fewer than the minimum four satellites needed are providing signals
    3. Its signals are restricted to military users
    4. Its ground stations have been shut for upgrades
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Fewer than the minimum four satellites needed are providing signals. In July 2026 the government told the Lok Sabha that only three NavIC satellites were providing signals, while a minimum of four is needed for standalone positioning. Its timing service still works.

  2. Consider the following statements about NavIC as of 2026:
    1. At least four working satellites are needed for standalone positioning.
    2. The government said NavIC's timing service is still functional.
    3. NVS-02 reached its intended orbit and is providing signals.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct: the Lok Sabha reply said timing service is functional. Statement 3 is incorrect: NVS-02 could not reach its intended orbit because of a propulsion problem.

  3. Consider the following statements based on SIPRI data released in March 2026:
    1. India was the second-largest arms importer in 2021-25.
    2. Ukraine was the largest arms importer in 2021-25.
    3. Russia supplied more than half of India's arms imports in 2021-25.
    4. Russia's share of India's arms imports fell between 2011-15 and 2021-25.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct: India had 8.2% and Ukraine 9.7% of global imports, and Russia's share fell from 70% to 40%. Statement 3 is incorrect: Russia's share in 2021-25 was 40%.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: UPI reduces India's dependence on international card networks for retail digital payments.
    Statement-II: The core infrastructure of UPI is operated by the National Payments Corporation of India.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Because NPCI, an Indian entity, runs the UPI rails (Statement-II), retail payments do not have to pass through Visa or Mastercard networks (Statement-I). Foreign-owned apps such as PhonePe and Google Pay operate on top of these rails but do not control them.

  5. Bharat Operating System Solutions (BOSS), cited as an indigenous software platform, was developed by which one of the following?

    1. Indian Space Research Organisation
    2. National Payments Corporation of India
    3. Defence Research and Development Organisation
    4. Centre for Development of Advanced Computing
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) Centre for Development of Advanced Computing. BOSS is a Linux-based operating system developed by C-DAC (Centre for Development of Advanced Computing).

  6. Consider the following statements:
    1. Starshield is used primarily by US defence agencies and other government partners.
    2. The NavIC satellites still providing signals in July 2026 were IRNSS-1B, IRNSS-1I and NVS-01.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct. SpaceX says Starshield serves mainly US defence agencies and government partners, and the government named these three NavIC satellites in its July 2026 Lok Sabha reply.

SBI finds 3,897 customer records on the dark web; DPDP breach duties start only in 2027

  1. Under the Digital Personal Data Protection framework, a data fiduciary that suffers a personal data breach must intimate it to whom?

    1. Only CERT-In
    2. Only the Reserve Bank of India
    3. The Data Protection Board of India and each affected data principal
    4. Only the stock exchanges, if it is a listed company
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) The Data Protection Board of India and each affected data principal. The DPDP Act, 2023 and the DPDP Rules require intimation to the Data Protection Board (with a detailed report within 72 hours) and to each affected data principal without delay. CERT-In reporting and stock exchange disclosure arise under other rules.

  2. Consider the following statements about the SBI data leak disclosed in October 2026:
    1. SBI was alerted by the Defence Cyber Agency, among others.
    2. All of the roughly 3.75 lakh records reviewed contained personal data of SBI customers.
    3. SBI disclosed the incident to the stock exchanges.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is correct: alerts came from its threat intelligence provider, the Defence Cyber Agency and CERT-In. Statement 2 is incorrect: only 3,897 of about 3.75 lakh records contained personally identifiable information. Statement 3 is correct: SBI filed under SEBI's listing regulations on 21 October 2026.

  3. Consider the following statements about the DPDP framework:
    1. The DPDP Act was enacted in August 2023.
    2. The Data Protection Board of India has four members.
    3. Appeals against the Board's orders lie with the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal.
    4. The maximum penalty for failing to take reasonable security safeguards is ₹250 crore.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect: appeals lie with the Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT).

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: SBI customers whose data leaked in October 2026 have no statutory right under the DPDP Act to be informed of the breach yet.
    Statement-II: The DPDP Act's core obligations on data fiduciaries come into force only on 13 May 2027.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. The duty to intimate affected data principals is among the core obligations phased in over 18 months, to 13 May 2027 (Statement-II). That is why affected customers cannot yet claim notification under the Act (Statement-I).

  5. CERT-In's directions of April 2022 require service providers and other entities to report cyber security incidents to CERT-In within:

    1. 72 hours
    2. 24 hours
    3. 90 days
    4. 6 hours
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) 6 hours. The directions of 28 April 2022, issued under Section 70B(6) of the IT Act, set a six-hour reporting window. 72 hours is the DPDP Rules' window for a detailed breach report to the Data Protection Board, and 90 days is the Rules' window for responding to data principals' requests.

  6. Consider the following statements:
    1. Under the DPDP Rules, consent manager provisions take effect one year after notification of the Rules.
    2. Section 43A of the IT Act ceased to apply as soon as the DPDP Rules were notified.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct: consent manager provisions apply from 13 November 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: Section 43A and its rules remain in force until the 18-month period ends on 13 May 2027.