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UPSC current affairs quiz, 23 October 2026

30 Prelims-style questions on the day's news, in the formats UPSC uses (statement-based, How many, Statement-I and II), each with the answer and an explanation. Try each one before you open the answer.

Read 23 October 2026 first22 October 2026 quizTimed test in the app

UNEP Emissions Gap Report 2026: overshooting 1.5°C is now unavoidable

  1. With reference to the UNEP Emissions Gap Report 2026, consider the following statements:
    1. It says global emissions must fall 18% below 2025 levels by 2030 on the lowest-overshoot pathway.
    2. It projects that full delivery of current NDCs would hold warming below 2°C this century.
    3. Its lowest-overshoot pathway returns warming below 1.5°C by the end of the century.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 1 and 3 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only. Statement 1 is correct: 18% by 2030, 45% by 2035, 69% by 2040. Statement 2 is wrong: full NDC delivery leads to about 2.6°C. Statement 3 is correct: the path peaks at 1.7 to 1.8°C and returns below 1.5°C by 2100.

  2. Consider the following statements about the Emissions Gap Report 2026:
    1. It is published by the UN Environment Programme.
    2. It found that global greenhouse gas emissions fell sharply in 2025.
    3. It found that the United States recorded the largest emissions increase of any country in 2025.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. 1 is correct: it is a UNEP report. 2 is wrong: emissions in 2025 were roughly flat compared with 2024. 3 is correct: the US added about 133 million tonnes of CO2 equivalent, the largest rise.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: The Emissions Gap Report 2026 says that limiting warming to 1.5°C with no or limited overshoot is no longer possible.
    Statement-II: Even full delivery of current NDCs would cut global emissions by only 5 to 8% by 2030, far short of the 18% needed.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct, and the shortfall in pledged cuts is the reason the report says a breach is now unavoidable.

  4. Consider the following statements about the Paris Agreement:
    1. It was adopted at COP21 in December 2015.
    2. It requires parties to communicate NDCs every five years.
    3. Its first global stocktake took place in 2023.
    4. It sets legally binding emission targets only for developed countries.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. 4 is wrong: binding targets for developed countries alone were the Kyoto Protocol's model; under Paris every party sets its own NDC.

  5. On the lowest-overshoot pathway in the Emissions Gap Report 2026, roughly how much carbon dioxide must be removed and permanently stored this century?

    1. 32 billion tonnes
    2. 120 billion tonnes
    3. 320 billion tonnes
    4. 1,000 billion tonnes
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 320 billion tonnes. The report says about 320 billion tonnes (gigatonnes) of CO2 removal is needed this century.

  6. According to the Emissions Gap Report 2026, which of the following warming projections are correct?
    1. Current policies: about 2.8°C this century
    2. All NDCs plus net-zero targets: about 2.1°C
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct: 2.8°C on current policies and 2.1°C with NDCs plus net-zero targets; full NDC delivery alone gives about 2.6°C.

India and Poland aim to double trade by 2030, set up a defence industry dialogue

  1. With reference to India-Poland relations, consider the following statements:
    1. The two countries upgraded their ties to a Strategic Partnership in 2024.
    2. Poland has supported India's candidacy for a non-permanent seat in the UN Security Council for 2028-29.
    3. Poland is a member of the Visegrad Group.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3. All three are correct. Ties became a Strategic Partnership during Modi's August 2024 visit. The 2026 joint statement records Poland's support for India's 2028-29 bid. Poland is one of the four Visegrad (V4) countries, and the statement welcomes the V4+India format.

  2. Consider the following statements about the India-Poland joint statement of 22 October 2026:
    1. It proposed a Defence Industry Dialogue.
    2. It announced the signing of a Social Security Agreement.
    3. It recorded Poland's decision to join the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. 1 and 3 are correct. 2 is wrong: the Social Security Agreement was signed earlier, on 25 November 2024 in Warsaw.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: The goal of doubling India-Poland trade by 2030 depends on the India-EU free trade agreement.
    Statement-II: As an EU member, Poland's external trade policy is set at the level of the European Union.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. Because trade policy is an EU competence, India-Poland tariffs follow India-EU terms, which is why the trade goal is tied to the FTA.

  4. Consider the following:
    1. Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative
    2. International Solar Alliance
    3. Global Biofuels Alliance
    4. Quad
    How many of the above did India invite Poland to join in the October 2026 joint statement?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. India invited Poland to the IPOI, the ISA and the Global Biofuels Alliance. The Quad is a grouping of India, the US, Japan and Australia and was not mentioned.

  5. The 'Good Maharaja', remembered in Poland for sheltering Polish children during the Second World War, was the ruler of

    1. Kolhapur
    2. Baroda
    3. Nawanagar
    4. Mysore
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Nawanagar. The Jam Saheb of Nawanagar sheltered more than 1,000 Polish refugees, mainly children, at Balachadi near Jamnagar. Valivade near Kolhapur hosted another camp, but the 'Good Maharaja' is the Jam Saheb.

  6. Which of the following statements about India's trade with Poland is/are correct?
    1. Bilateral trade in 2025 was above $6 billion.
    2. Poland runs a trade surplus with India.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. 1 is correct: $6.36 billion in 2025. 2 is wrong: India exported $4.83 billion and imported $1.53 billion, so the surplus is India's.

MPC minutes show RBI rate-setters split on whether inflation is spreading

  1. With reference to the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the Reserve Bank of India, consider the following statements:
    1. It is constituted under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
    2. Three of its six members are nominated by the Central Government.
    3. Its minutes are published on the 14th day after each meeting.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3. All three are correct. The MPC is set up under Section 45ZB of the RBI Act, 1934; three external members are nominated by the Centre; minutes are published on the 14th day under Section 45ZL, which is why the October 2026 minutes came out on 21 October.

  2. Consider the following statements about the October 2026 MPC decision:
    1. The repo rate hike was decided by a 4-2 vote.
    2. The stance was changed from neutral to calibrated tightening.
    3. The minutes say rate cuts are off the table in the near term.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. 1 is wrong: the hike was unanimous (6-0); the 4-2 vote was on the stance. 2 and 3 are correct.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Some MPC members argued for acting before definitive evidence of generalised inflation emerged.
    Statement-II: Once inflation spreads to wages and expectations, it becomes harder to bring down.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. Poonam Gupta said one may not want to wait for more definitive evidence; the reason for pre-emptive action is that entrenched inflation is harder to reverse.

  4. Consider the following about the composition of the MPC:
    1. The RBI Governor chairs it.
    2. The Union Finance Secretary is an ex officio member.
    3. External members serve a non-renewable four-year term.
    4. The Governor has a casting vote in case of a tie.
    How many of the above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. 1, 3 and 4 are correct. 2 is wrong: no government official sits on the MPC; it has three RBI members and three external experts nominated by the Centre.

  5. Which MPC member said in October 2026 that inflation 'does not show any signs of overheating of the economy nor of generalisation'?

    1. Sanjay Malhotra
    2. Saugata Bhattacharya
    3. Nagesh Kumar
    4. Indranil Bhattacharyya
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Nagesh Kumar. External member Nagesh Kumar held this view. Malhotra and Saugata Bhattacharya saw generalisation or entrenchment; Indranil Bhattacharyya saw pass-through of input costs.

  6. Which of the following statements about the RBI's October 2026 projections is/are correct?
    1. CPI inflation for 2026-27 is projected at 5.2%.
    2. Inflation in October to December 2026 is projected to breach the 6% upper tolerance limit.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. 1 is correct. 2 is wrong: Q3 inflation is projected at 6.0%, at the upper limit, not above it.

Loss and damage fund sets aside $20 million for Nepal, its first ever allocation

  1. With reference to the Fund for Responding to Loss and Damage (FRLD), consider the following statements:
    1. The decision to set it up was taken at COP27.
    2. The World Bank decides which countries receive money from it.
    3. Its first allocation was for Nepal.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only. 1 is correct: agreed at COP27 in 2022. 2 is wrong: the World Bank hosts the fund for an interim period, but the board makes all funding decisions. 3 is correct: $20 million was set aside for Nepal on 22 October 2026.

  2. Consider the following statements about the FRLD decision on Nepal:
    1. It was taken at an extraordinary board meeting held online.
    2. The $20 million was paid to Nepal immediately.
    3. Germany and Czechia said the decision should not set a precedent.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. 1 and 3 are correct. 2 is wrong: the money is provisionally set aside and will be released only after Nepal's funding proposal is approved.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: The FRLD's allocation for Nepal covers less than 1% of Nepal's estimated recovery needs.
    Statement-II: The FRLD caps support at $20 million per request.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. The $20 million cap is why the allocation is so small against needs of at least $4.71 billion.

  4. Consider the following rivers:
    1. Bhotekoshi
    2. Trishuli
    3. Narayani
    4. Karnali
    How many of the above were part of the river system hit by the debris flow of 26 August 2026 in Nepal?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. The debris flow moved down the Bhotekoshi, Trishuli and Narayani river system. The Karnali, in western Nepal, was not part of it.

  5. Which one of the following best describes 'loss and damage' in climate negotiations?

    1. Funding to cut greenhouse gas emissions in developing countries
    2. Harm from climate change that mitigation and adaptation could not prevent
    3. Penalties paid by countries that miss their NDC targets
    4. Insurance for industries affected by carbon pricing
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Harm from climate change that mitigation and adaptation could not prevent. Loss and damage refers to unavoidable climate harm beyond what adaptation can prevent, recognised in Article 8 of the Paris Agreement. It is not mitigation finance, a penalty or industrial insurance.

  6. Which of the following statements about the FRLD is/are correct?
    1. It was operationalised at COP28 in Dubai.
    2. The Philippines hosts its board.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct: the fund was operationalised at COP28 in 2023, and the Philippines was selected as the board's host country.

Should children be used in election campaigns? A Madras HC ruling opens the debate

  1. With reference to election disputes in India, consider the following statements:
    1. An election to a State Legislative Assembly can be challenged by an election petition in the High Court.
    2. Undue influence is a corrupt practice under the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
    3. Violation of an Election Commission advisory is by itself a ground in the Act for declaring an election void.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. 1 is correct: election petitions are tried by High Courts. 2 is correct: Section 123(2) lists undue influence as a corrupt practice. 3 is wrong: the Madras High Court held that even if the EC's 2024 circular had the force of law, it would not be a ground to void the election.

  2. Consider the following statements about the Madras High Court ruling of October 2026:
    1. It held that the use of children in the campaign amounted to a corrupt practice.
    2. It held that the party leader's appeal could not be attributed to the candidate.
    3. It said the question of prohibiting such conduct was for Parliament to consider.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. 1 is wrong: the court rejected the corrupt practice claim and found no cause of action. 2 and 3 are correct.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: The Madras High Court could not set aside the Salem North election on the ground that the EC's 2024 advisory on children was violated.
    Statement-II: An election can be declared void only on the grounds listed in Section 100 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct, and II explains I: the election petition is a statutory remedy limited to the grounds in Section 100, which the court held did not cover a breach of the advisory.

  4. Under the Election Commission's advisory of 5 February 2024, which of the following are prohibited?
    1. Carrying a child in a vehicle during a rally
    2. Using children to recite poems or songs for a party
    3. A child simply accompanying a parent near a leader without any campaigning
    4. Displaying party symbols through children
    How many of the above are prohibited?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. 1, 2 and 4 are prohibited. 3 is expressly not a violation if the child is not involved in campaigning.

  5. For an act of undue influence to void an election under the RP Act, 1951, by whom must it be committed?

    1. Any member of the public
    2. Any office-bearer of the candidate's party
    3. The candidate, the candidate's agent or a person acting with the consent of the candidate or election agent
    4. Only the candidate personally
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) The candidate, the candidate's agent or a person acting with the consent of the candidate or election agent. The corrupt practice must be by the candidate, the agent, or another person with the consent of the candidate or election agent. This is why the party leader's appeal, not shown to have such consent, failed as a ground.

  6. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
    1. Article 12 of the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child gives children the right to express their views on matters affecting them.
    2. India has not ratified the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. 1 is correct. 2 is wrong: India ratified the UNCRC on 11 December 1992.