UPSC current affairs quiz, 25 October 2026
30 Prelims-style questions on the day's news, in the formats UPSC uses (statement-based, How many, Statement-I and II), each with the answer and an explanation. Try each one before you open the answer.
Cauvery panel tells Karnataka to release 3,000 cusecs a day to Tamil Nadu for 15 days
With reference to the Cauvery water dispute, consider the following statements:
1. The Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal was constituted in 1990 and gave its final award in 2007.
2. The Supreme Court's 2018 verdict reduced Karnataka's share of Cauvery water.
3. Biligundlu is the point on the Karnataka-Tamil Nadu border where releases to Tamil Nadu are measured.
Which of the statements given above are correct?- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only. Statement 1 is correct: the tribunal was set up in 1990 and gave its final award in 2007. Statement 2 is wrong: the 2018 verdict increased Karnataka's share by 14.75 tmcft and reduced Tamil Nadu's. Statement 3 is correct: Biligundlu is the inter-State gauging point used in CWRC orders.
Consider the following statements:
1. A cusec measures a volume of water, while a tmcft measures a rate of flow.
2. A release of 3,000 cusecs for 15 days amounts to about 3.88 tmcft.
3. The CWRC's October 2026 order was for a period of 30 days.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (a) Only one. Statement 1 is wrong: a cusec (cubic foot per second) is a rate and a tmcft is a volume. Statement 2 is correct: 3,000 x 86,400 x 15 is about 3.89 billion cubic feet, reported as 3.88 tmcft. Statement 3 is wrong: the order was for 15 days.
Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court's 2018 Cauvery verdict:
1. It kept the total of 740 tmcft fixed by the tribunal.
2. It increased Tamil Nadu's share.
3. It cited drinking water needs, including those of Bengaluru, in raising Karnataka's share.
4. It directed the setting up of a body to implement the award.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (c) Only three. Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct: the total stayed 740 tmcft, 4.75 tmcft was allowed for drinking and domestic needs including Bengaluru, and the CWMA was set up to implement the verdict. Statement 2 is wrong: Tamil Nadu's share fell from 419 to 404.25 tmcft.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The CWRC issues short-term release orders for the Cauvery during deficient monsoon years.
Statement-II: In a distress year, the shortfall in flows has to be shared between the basin States, and the CWMA system is responsible for deciding that sharing.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. The CWRC issues 15-day orders because the CWMA system must share the shortfall in a deficient year, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.
Article 262 of the Constitution of India provides that:
- The Supreme Court alone shall decide disputes over inter-State rivers
- Parliament may by law provide for adjudication of inter-State river disputes and may exclude the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and other courts
- The President shall appoint a permanent tribunal for every inter-State river
- States may enter into binding water agreements without Union approval
Show answer
Answer: (b) Parliament may by law provide for adjudication of inter-State river disputes and may exclude the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and other courts. Article 262 empowers Parliament to provide by law for adjudicating inter-State river water disputes and to bar the Supreme Court or any other court from exercising jurisdiction over them. The Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956 is that law.
Consider the following statements about the October 2026 Cauvery order:
1. Tamil Nadu asked for about 3.88 tmcft.
2. Karnataka argued that sharing in a distress year should reflect actual inflows.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (b) 2 only. Statement 1 is wrong: 3.88 tmcft is what the order gives; Tamil Nadu sought 18.402 tmcft. Statement 2 is correct: Karnataka argued that distress-year decisions should consider actual inflows and ground conditions.
Transport Ministry seeks CERT-In audit of VAHAN, SARATHI portals after data sale reports
With reference to India's transport e-governance systems, consider the following pairs:
1. VAHAN : Vehicle registration records
2. SARATHI : Driving licence records
3. PUCC : Toll payment through FASTag
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. Pairs 1 and 2 are correct: VAHAN handles vehicle registration and SARATHI driving licences. Pair 3 is wrong: PUCC is the Pollution Under Control Certificate system; FASTag is the electronic toll system.
Consider the following statements:
1. CERT-In functions under the Information Technology Act, 2000.
2. CERT-In directions of 2022 require cyber incidents to be reported within six hours.
3. CERT-In is a body under the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct: CERT-In is designated under Section 70B of the IT Act, and its April 2022 directions set a six-hour reporting window. Statement 3 is wrong: CERT-In works under MeitY; MoRTH only requested the audit.
Consider the following statements about the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023:
1. It requires a data fiduciary to take reasonable security safeguards to prevent a personal data breach.
2. It requires breach notification to the Data Protection Board and affected persons.
3. It provides a penalty of up to ₹250 crore for failing to keep security safeguards.
4. All its substantive obligations were in force before October 2026.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (c) Only three. Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct (Sections 8(5), 8(6) and the Schedule). Statement 4 is wrong: the main obligations apply only from 13 May 2027.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Owner details from VAHAN could be bought online without any government server being hacked.
Statement-II: Access credentials issued to private entities for verification were reportedly reused to resell records.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. The security firm's report cited by IFF found no government system was breached; the Telegram service used credentials tied to licensed identity-verification firms. Statement-II explains Statement-I.
In the context of the right to privacy in India, the principle that personal data collected for one purpose should not be used for an unrelated one is called:
- Data localisation
- Purpose limitation
- Data portability
- Right to be forgotten
Show answer
Answer: (b) Purpose limitation. Purpose limitation means data is used only for the purpose for which it was collected. IFF cites the Puttaswamy judgment (2017) for treating it as part of informational privacy.
Consider the following statements:
1. A 2019 policy allowed commercial organisations to buy a year's access to VAHAN and SARATHI data.
2. That 2019 policy is still in force.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct: the March 2019 Bulk Data Sharing Policy priced a year's access at ₹3 crore. Statement 2 is wrong: it was scrapped in June 2020; a new policy came in August 2025.
Centre creates 11 crore Farmer IDs, five months before the March 2027 deadline
With reference to AgriStack under the Digital Agriculture Mission, consider the following:
1. Farmers' Registry
2. Geo-referenced village maps
3. Crop Sown Registry
4. National Agriculture Market (e-NAM)
How many of the above are registries that make up AgriStack?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (c) Only three. AgriStack is made of three State-held registries: the Farmers' Registry, geo-referenced village maps and the Crop Sown Registry. e-NAM is a separate online trading platform for agricultural produce, not an AgriStack registry.
Consider the following statements about the Digital Agriculture Mission:
1. It was approved by the Union Cabinet in 2024.
2. Its total outlay is ₹2,817 crore.
3. It is implemented by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct: approved on 2 September 2024 with ₹2,817 crore. Statement 3 is wrong: it is implemented by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Farmer ID target of 11 crore was met five months before the deadline.
2. The Farmer ID is linked to land records.
3. AgriStack registries are maintained by the States.
4. More than 6 crore farmers have received benefits through Farmer ID-based delivery, according to the government.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (d) All four. All four are correct: the target was met by 23 October 2026 against a 31 March 2027 deadline; the ID is linked to land records; AgriStack is made of State registries; and the government reports over 6 crore beneficiaries.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Tenant farmers and sharecroppers risk being left out of the Farmer ID system.
Statement-II: The Farmer ID is built on the Farmers' Registry, which links farmers to land records.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. Because the ID rests on land records, cultivators without titles are harder to include, which is why States are asked to bring tenants and actual cultivators on board. Statement-II explains Statement-I.
The 'Krishi Decision Support System' under the Digital Agriculture Mission primarily aims to:
- Fix minimum support prices for kharif crops
- Bring together data on crops, soil, weather and water for decision-making
- Issue Kisan Credit Cards through post offices
- Register farmer producer organisations
Show answer
Answer: (b) Bring together data on crops, soil, weather and water for decision-making. The Krishi Decision Support System is the mission's data layer that combines crop, soil, weather and water resource information. MSP is fixed on CACP recommendations; KCC is issued by banks.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Digital Crop Survey records the crops sown on each plot every season.
2. Soil profile mapping under the mission covers all of India's forest land.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct: the mobile-based Digital Crop Survey feeds the Crop Sown Registry. Statement 2 is wrong: soil profile mapping targets about 142 million hectares of agricultural land, not forest land.
IMD study finds India's climate zones shifting, ties north India's drying to the Pacific
The 'Victoria Mode', recently linked by an IMD study to drying over the Gangetic plains, refers to:
- A pattern of sea-surface temperature anomalies in the North Pacific Ocean
- A cycle of temperature differences between the western and eastern Indian Ocean
- A pressure oscillation over the South Atlantic Ocean
- The seasonal movement of the Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone over Australia
Show answer
Answer: (a) A pattern of sea-surface temperature anomalies in the North Pacific Ocean. The Victoria Mode is a recurring pattern of warm and cool sea-surface temperature anomalies in the North Pacific, distinct from the Pacific Decadal Oscillation. Option 2 describes the Indian Ocean Dipole.
Consider the following statements about the IMD and IITM climate zone study:
1. Marathwada and West Vidarbha shifted mostly from tropical savannah to semi-arid steppe.
2. Western Saurashtra and Kutch shifted from semi-arid to fully arid.
3. Gangetic West Bengal shifted from tropical savannah to temperate.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 reverses the finding: western Saurashtra and Kutch moved from fully arid to semi-arid.
Consider the following:
1. El Niño
2. Indian Ocean Dipole
3. Victoria Mode
4. Pacific Decadal Oscillation
How many of the above are patterns of sea-surface temperature variability in the Pacific Ocean?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (c) Only three. El Niño (equatorial Pacific), the Victoria Mode (North Pacific) and the Pacific Decadal Oscillation (North Pacific) are Pacific patterns. The Indian Ocean Dipole is an Indian Ocean pattern.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Rainfall over Gangetic West Bengal and Bihar has declined over recent decades.
Statement-II: The negative phase of the Victoria Mode steers moisture away from the Gangetic plains and creates high pressure over Bengal.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct and the study links the decline (1981 to 2020) to the negative Victoria Mode, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.
Consider the following statements:
1. The study found that tropical monsoon climate zones contracted along India's west coast.
2. The study found that the temperate zone now covers more than four-fifths of northeast India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (b) 2 only. Statement 1 is wrong: tropical monsoon zones expanded in Konkan and Goa, coastal Karnataka and Kerala. Statement 2 is correct: the temperate zone now covers more than four-fifths of the northeast, up from about three-quarters.
In climatology, a 'climate normal' usually refers to:
- The average weather of a single year
- Long-term averages of climate variables over a 30-year period
- The forecast issued at the start of the monsoon
- The highest temperature ever recorded at a station
Show answer
Answer: (b) Long-term averages of climate variables over a 30-year period. Climate normals are averages over 30-year periods, such as 1991-2020, the latest normal used in the study. Comparing successive normals shows how climate zones shift.
Film certification records of over 500 titles exposed in CBFC data leak
With reference to film certification in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Central Board of Film Certification is a statutory body under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
2. After the 2023 amendment, CBFC certificates are valid for ten years.
3. The UA category has been divided into UA 7+, UA 13+ and UA 16+.
Which of the statements given above are correct?- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only. Statement 1 is correct: the CBFC is set up under the Cinematograph Act, 1952 and works under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting. Statement 2 is wrong: the Cinematograph (Amendment) Act, 2023 replaced the ten-year validity with perpetual validity. Statement 3 is correct: the 2023 amendment introduced UA 7+, UA 13+ and UA 16+.
Consider the following statements about the Cinematograph (Amendment) Act, 2023:
1. It introduced age-based sub-categories within the UA certificate.
2. It made CBFC certificates valid in perpetuity.
3. It gave the Union government revisional powers over films already certified.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: the 2023 law did not give the Centre revisional powers; courts had held in the K.M. Shankarappa case that the government cannot revise the Board's certification decisions.
Consider the following statements about the October 2026 CBFC leak:
1. The leaked material included distribution agreements showing licensing fees.
2. Complete copies of the films were leaked.
3. The CBFC informed CERT-In.
4. The CBFC's initial checks found unauthorised access to many filmmakers' accounts.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the films themselves were not leaked. Statement 4 is wrong: the CBFC's technical team found no sign of unauthorised access to individual filmmakers' accounts.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Much of the material exposed in the CBFC leak may fall outside the protection of the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023.
Statement-II: The DPDP Act, 2023 applies to digital personal data, that is, data about an identifiable individual.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. Scripts, cut lists and licensing fees are mostly business information, not data about identifiable individuals, so the DPDP Act's scope explains why it may not cover them.
In film certification by the CBFC, the 'S' category means:
- Suitable for screening in schools
- Restricted to specialised audiences such as doctors or scientists
- Suspended pending review
- Suitable for streaming platforms only
Show answer
Answer: (b) Restricted to specialised audiences such as doctors or scientists. An S certificate restricts exhibition to members of a profession or class of persons, such as doctors or scientists.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Cinematograph Act, 1952 requires a CBFC certificate for public exhibition of a film in cinemas.
2. The CBFC works under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the CBFC works under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.