Pratidin

UPSC current affairs quiz, 26 October 2026

30 Prelims-style questions on the day's news, in the formats UPSC uses (statement-based, How many, Statement-I and II), each with the answer and an explanation. Try each one before you open the answer.

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Officials filed 61,059 Form 7s in Karnataka's SIR with the reason field left blank

  1. Under Section 22 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950, before an Electoral Registration Officer deletes an entry because the person is no longer ordinarily resident in the constituency, which of the following is required?

    1. Prior approval of the Chief Election Commissioner
    2. A reasonable opportunity of being heard to the person concerned
    3. An order of the District Judge
    4. A resolution of the gram sabha or ward committee
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) A reasonable opportunity of being heard to the person concerned. The proviso to Section 22 requires the ERO to give the person concerned a reasonable opportunity of being heard before amending, transposing or deleting an entry on grounds other than death. No approval of the CEC, a court order or a local body resolution is required; the ERO acts subject to the Election Commission's general or special directions.

  2. Consider the following statements about the Form 7 filings in Karnataka's SIR:
    1. They were filed by Electoral Registration Officers and Assistant Electoral Registration Officers.
    2. Most of them were filed within the claims and objections period.
    3. Officials said they were generated by software with the reason field left blank.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is correct: EROs and AEROs filed 61,059 such forms. Statement 2 is incorrect: only 192 were filed within the 24 August to 23 September window; more than 60,800 came after it. Statement 3 is correct: officials said the software left the reason field blank.

  3. Consider the following statements about Section 22 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950:
    1. An Electoral Registration Officer can act under it only on an application, not on his own motion.
    2. It allows deletion of an entry if the person has ceased to be ordinarily resident in the constituency.
    3. It requires a reasonable opportunity of being heard before a deletion on residence grounds.
    4. It requires a hearing even when the ground is the person's death.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is incorrect: the ERO may act on an application or on his own motion. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct: the proviso requires a hearing. Statement 4 is incorrect: the hearing requirement does not apply to deletion on the ground of death.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Under the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960, an objection filed after the prescribed period is liable to be rejected.
    Statement-II: Rule 17 of these Rules provides that claims and objections not lodged within the prescribed period, or not in the prescribed form and manner, shall be rejected.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. Rule 17 is the reason a late or improperly filed objection must be rejected, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.

  5. The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls is vested in the Election Commission by which Article of the Constitution?

    1. Article 326
    2. Article 324
    3. Article 329
    4. Article 243K
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Article 324. Article 324 vests superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of elections to Parliament and State legislatures in the Election Commission. Article 326 provides adult suffrage, Article 329 bars courts from interfering in electoral matters, and Article 243K concerns State Election Commissions for panchayats.

  6. Which of the following forms is used by an elector to seek correction of an entry or a shift of residence in the electoral roll?

    1. Form 6
    2. Form 7
    3. Form 8
    4. Form 17C
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Form 8. Form 8 is for correction of entries and shifting of residence. Form 6 is for inclusion of a new elector and Form 7 is for objection or deletion. Form 17C is the account of votes recorded at a polling station, not a roll form.

Samudra Manthan rules: Centre bears dry-well losses, recovers aid only from oil finds

  1. Under the Samudra Manthan scheme guidelines, the government's support for a deepwater well becomes recoverable from the operator when:

    1. The well is drilled to its full sanctioned depth
    2. The well results in a commercial discovery
    3. The operator fails to complete the well within the deadline
    4. The well is found dry
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) The well results in a commercial discovery. Support becomes recoverable only if the funded well leads to a commercial discovery; repayment starts after seven years of commercial production or 50% cost recovery, whichever is earlier. Support for dry or non-commercial wells is not recovered. Reaching sanctioned depth only triggers disbursement stages.

  2. Consider the following statements about the Samudra Manthan scheme guidelines:
    1. Government support for a dry well is not recovered from the operator.
    2. Recovery of support from a successful well is indexed to inflation.
    3. Support is released in two stages linked to drilling progress and well completion.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect: recoveries are in annual instalments with no inflation indexation. Statement 3 is correct: 40% at 40% of sanctioned depth and 60% after completion and approval of the well report.

  3. Consider the following under the Samudra Manthan guidelines:
    1. Blocks under Revenue Sharing Contracts
    2. Blocks under Production Sharing Contracts
    3. Coal-bed methane blocks
    4. Development wells
    How many of the above are eligible for well-drilling support by default?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Only one. Only Revenue Sharing Contract blocks qualify. PSC and coal-bed methane blocks are excluded unless the government notifies otherwise, and development wells are not eligible.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Under Samudra Manthan, the government will fund up to 100% of the cost of stratigraphic wells.
    Statement-II: Stratigraphic wells are drilled mainly to understand a basin's rock layers, which improves geological data for future exploration.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. Because stratigraphic wells generate knowledge that benefits all future exploration rather than a direct commercial return, the government funds them fully (up to ₹1,350 crore each). Statement-II explains Statement-I.

  5. In the Samudra Manthan guidelines, 'ultra-deepwater' refers to water depths greater than:

    1. 400 metres
    2. 1,000 metres
    3. 1,500 metres
    4. 3,000 metres
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 1,500 metres. Deepwater is defined as water deeper than 400 metres and ultra-deepwater as deeper than 1,500 metres.

  6. Consider the following statements about Samudra Manthan:
    1. A steering committee chaired by the Cabinet Secretary oversees the scheme.
    2. A mid-term evaluation is due after 30 deepwater wells are drilled.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct. The Cabinet Secretary chairs the steering committee, the Petroleum Secretary chairs the executive committee that appraises proposals, and a mid-term evaluation follows the drilling of 30 deepwater wells.

Editorial: A 'normal' northeast monsoon in a strong El Niño year can still bring floods

  1. In IMD's outlook for the 2026 northeast monsoon, 'normal' rainfall over South Peninsular India is defined as rainfall within what range of the Long Period Average?

    1. 96% to 104%
    2. 90% to 110%
    3. 88% to 112%
    4. 80% to 120%
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 88% to 112%. IMD's 1 October 2026 outlook says the October to December rainfall over South Peninsular India is most likely to be normal, defined as 88% to 112% of the LPA (about 334.13 mm, based on 1971 to 2020). The 96% to 104% band is used for 'normal' in the all-India southwest monsoon forecast.

  2. Consider the following subdivisions:
    1. Tamil Nadu, Puducherry and Karaikal
    2. Rayalaseema
    3. Konkan and Goa
    4. South Interior Karnataka
    How many of the above are among the subdivisions covered by IMD's northeast monsoon forecast for South Peninsular India?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Tamil Nadu, Puducherry and Karaikal, Rayalaseema and South Interior Karnataka are covered, along with Coastal Andhra Pradesh and Yanam, and Kerala and Mahe. Konkan and Goa is not part of the South Peninsular India region for the northeast monsoon.

  3. Consider the following statements about IMD's 1 October 2026 outlook:
    1. It forecasts normal October to December rainfall over South Peninsular India.
    2. It says El Niño conditions are likely to end before December 2026.
    3. It expects the Indian Ocean Dipole to be neutral through the season.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect: IMD says the strong El Niño is likely to strengthen through the end of 2026 and continue into early 2027. Statement 3 is correct.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Tamil Nadu receives a large part of its annual rainfall between October and December.
    Statement-II: Tamil Nadu lies in the rain shadow of the Western Ghats during the southwest monsoon, while the north-easterly winds of the northeast monsoon pick up moisture over the Bay of Bengal.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. Tamil Nadu gets about 48% of its annual rain in October to December. It gets relatively little in June to September because it is in the rain shadow of the Western Ghats, while the north-easterly winds of the later season cross the Bay of Bengal and bring rain to the east coast. Statement-II explains Statement-I.

  5. El Niño refers to:

    1. Abnormal cooling of surface waters in the central and eastern equatorial Pacific
    2. Abnormal warming of surface waters in the central and eastern equatorial Pacific
    3. A sea surface temperature difference between the western and eastern Indian Ocean
    4. An eastward-moving band of clouds and rain in the tropics
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Abnormal warming of surface waters in the central and eastern equatorial Pacific. El Niño is the periodic warming of the central and eastern equatorial Pacific. Cooling is La Niña. The west-east Indian Ocean temperature difference is the Indian Ocean Dipole, and the eastward-moving tropical disturbance is the Madden-Julian Oscillation.

  6. Consider the following statements:
    1. The 2026 southwest monsoon rainfall was 12.6% below normal.
    2. The northeast monsoon rains of 2026 began before the southwest monsoon had withdrawn from the whole country.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct: 759.4 mm against 868.6 mm. Statement 2 is incorrect: IMD's 15 October bulletin records the southwest monsoon withdrawing from the entire country and the northeast monsoon rains beginning on the same day.

PM opens RBI's ₹169 crore data centre and cybersecurity institute near Bhubaneswar

  1. With reference to payment systems operated by the Reserve Bank of India, consider the following statements:
    1. RTGS settles transactions on a gross, one-by-one basis in real time.
    2. NEFT settles transactions in batches.
    3. Both RTGS and NEFT are available round the clock.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3. All three are correct. RTGS (Real Time Gross Settlement) settles each transaction individually and immediately. NEFT (National Electronic Funds Transfer) settles in half-hourly batches. NEFT became 24x7 in December 2019 and RTGS in December 2020. Both will be housed in the RBI's new Bhubaneswar data centre.

  2. Consider the following statements about the RBI facility inaugurated on 25 October 2026:
    1. It is located near Bhubaneswar in Odisha.
    2. It will host mission-critical payment and settlement systems.
    3. It is the RBI's first data centre in the country.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is correct: it is at Info Valley-II, Jatni, near Bhubaneswar. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect: the Odisha Chief Minister said it is the second such facility after the one in Navi Mumbai.

  3. Consider the following statements about RBI payment systems:
    1. In RTGS, transactions are settled individually and in real time.
    2. NEFT settles transactions in half-hourly batches.
    3. NEFT became available 24x7 before RTGS did.
    4. RTGS is operated by the National Payments Corporation of India.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct: NEFT went 24x7 in December 2019 and RTGS in December 2020. Statement 4 is incorrect: RTGS and NEFT are operated by the RBI; NPCI runs retail systems such as UPI and IMPS.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: The RBI chose a site near Bhubaneswar for its new data centre.
    Statement-II: The site was selected for geographical stability, away from seismically active zones and high-risk international border areas.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct, and an official cited geographical stability as the reason for choosing the site, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.

  5. Which of the following is designated as the national agency for incident response in cyber security under the Information Technology Act, 2000?

    1. NCIIPC
    2. CERT-In
    3. National Security Council Secretariat
    4. Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) CERT-In. CERT-In is the national agency for incident response under Section 70B of the IT Act, 2000. NCIIPC (Section 70A) protects critical information infrastructure. The NSCS coordinates national security policy, and I4C is a Home Ministry body on cybercrime.

  6. In the context of IT systems, keeping a second, geographically distant data centre that can take over if the primary one fails is mainly meant to ensure:

    1. Lower electricity costs
    2. Business continuity and disaster recovery
    3. Data localisation under the DPDP Act
    4. Faster internet speeds for customers
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Business continuity and disaster recovery. A geographically separate site lets critical systems keep running, or be restored quickly, if one site is hit by a disaster or attack. This is business continuity and disaster recovery. It is not mainly about power costs, localisation law or internet speed.

Op-ed: Free bus travel raised women's mobility in four States, Time Use Survey data show

  1. With reference to the Time Use Survey (TUS) in India, consider the following statements:
    1. It is conducted by the National Statistics Office.
    2. The first all-India TUS was conducted in 2019.
    3. It records time use only of persons aged 15 years and above.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. Statements 1 and 2 are correct: the NSO, under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, ran the first all-India TUS in 2019 and the second in 2024. Statement 3 is incorrect: the TUS collects information from all members aged six years and above in the selected households.

  2. Consider the following statements based on Time Use Survey data for free-bus States (Punjab, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Telangana):
    1. Women's trip-making rose more than men's between 2019 and 2024.
    2. Women's paid work rose faster than in other large States.
    3. The rise in women's travel was notable during non-office hours.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is correct: women gained 6.6 points against 3.7 for men. Statement 2 is incorrect: paid work rose 3.9 points in free-bus States against 4.5 points elsewhere. Statement 3 is correct: travel rose notably in late morning and afternoon.

  3. Consider the following statements about the NSO's Time Use Survey 2024:
    1. It was conducted from January to December 2024.
    2. It covered more than 4.5 lakh persons.
    3. It found that women aged 15 to 59 spent more time on unpaid domestic services than in 2019.
    4. It is the second all-India Time Use Survey.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct: 4,54,192 persons. Statement 3 is incorrect: time fell from about 315 to about 305 minutes a day. Statement 4 is correct: the first was in 2019.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: A State can provide free bus travel exclusively for women without violating the right to equality.
    Statement-II: Article 15(3) of the Constitution allows the State to make special provisions for women and children.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. Article 15(3) is an exception to the bar on sex-based discrimination in Article 15(1), and it is what allows a women-only benefit like free bus travel.

  5. The right of every citizen to move freely throughout the territory of India is guaranteed by:

    1. Article 19(1)(a)
    2. Article 19(1)(d)
    3. Article 21
    4. Article 15(3)
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Article 19(1)(d). Article 19(1)(d) guarantees the right to move freely throughout India. Article 19(1)(a) is freedom of speech, Article 21 is life and personal liberty, and Article 15(3) permits special provisions for women and children.

  6. Which of the following best explains why the Time Use Survey is useful for measuring women's unpaid care work?

    1. It counts only market work for which wages are paid
    2. It records how each person spends all 24 hours of a day
    3. It is based on administrative data from employers
    4. It covers only urban households
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) It records how each person spends all 24 hours of a day. The TUS records time spent on every activity over a full day, so it captures unpaid domestic and care work that labour force surveys miss. It is a household survey covering rural and urban areas, not employer data.