UPSC current affairs quiz, 1 November 2026
30 Prelims-style questions on the day's news, in the formats UPSC uses (statement-based, How many, Statement-I and II), each with the answer and an explanation. Try each one before you open the answer.
Quad foreign ministers meet in Atlanta, pledge over $85 million for trusted AI access
The Bab el-Mandeb Strait, mentioned in the Quad foreign ministers' statement of October 2026, connects which of the following?
- Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman
- Red Sea and Gulf of Aden
- Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea
- Arabian Sea and Gulf of Aden
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Answer: (b) Red Sea and Gulf of Aden. Bab el-Mandeb lies between Yemen on the Arabian Peninsula and Djibouti and Eritrea in the Horn of Africa, and links the Red Sea with the Gulf of Aden. The Strait of Hormuz links the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman; the Suez Canal links the Mediterranean and the Red Sea.
Consider the following statements about the Quad foreign ministers' meeting of October 2026:
1. It was held on the sidelines of the G20 Foreign Ministers' Meeting in Atlanta.
2. It was the first Quad foreign ministers' meeting of 2026.
3. The joint release named China as the source of economic coercion.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
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Answer: (a) Only one. 1 is correct: the meeting was in Atlanta on 31 October 2026 on the G20 sidelines. 2 is wrong: it was the third of 2026, after New Delhi (May) and Manila (July). 3 is wrong: the release expressed grave concern over economic coercion and arbitrary export restrictions without naming any country.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Quad has a permanent secretariat.
2. The Quad has a mutual defence clause like NATO's Article 5.
3. The Quad was revived at officials' level in Manila in November 2017.
4. The Quad grew out of a core group formed after the 2004 Indian Ocean tsunami.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
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Answer: (b) Only two. 1 and 2 are wrong: the Quad has no secretariat, treaty or defence clause. 3 is correct: officials met in Manila in November 2017. 4 is correct: it traces back to the Tsunami Core Group of 2004.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Quad members have begun working on recovering critical minerals from electronic waste and scrap.
Statement-II: Mining and processing of several critical minerals are concentrated in a few countries, which makes supply vulnerable to export restrictions.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
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Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. The US committed USD 10 million for recovery of critical minerals from e-waste and scrap in India and ASEAN. The reason for such recycling is concentrated supply and the risk of export curbs, which the ministers flagged as economic coercion. So Statement-II explains Statement-I.
Which one of the following pairs of a strait and the water bodies it connects is correctly matched?
- Strait of Hormuz: Red Sea and Gulf of Aden
- Bab el-Mandeb: Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman
- Strait of Hormuz: Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman
- Bab el-Mandeb: Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea
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Answer: (c) Strait of Hormuz: Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman. The Strait of Hormuz, between Iran and Oman, links the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Oman. Bab el-Mandeb links the Red Sea with the Gulf of Aden. The Mediterranean and the Red Sea are linked by the Suez Canal, not a strait.
With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), consider the following statements:
1. It was adopted in 1982.
2. India has ratified it.
3. The United States has ratified it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- 1 only
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
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Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only. 1 is correct: UNCLOS was adopted in 1982 and entered into force in 1994. 2 is correct: India ratified it in 1995. 3 is wrong: the US has signed the 1994 implementation agreement but has not ratified UNCLOS, though it treats much of it as customary law.
Delhi's winter curbs kick in as CAQM orders pre-emptive NCR curbs for 5 to 20 November
The Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas (CAQM), which issued pre-emptive pollution curbs in October 2026, is:
- a constitutional body under Article 48A
- a statutory body set up under a 2021 Act of Parliament
- a committee of the Central Pollution Control Board
- a body set up by an executive order of the Delhi government
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Answer: (b) a statutory body set up under a 2021 Act of Parliament. CAQM was first created by an ordinance in 2020 and then given statutory form by the Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Act, 2021. Its October 2026 directions were issued under Section 12 of that Act. Article 48A is a Directive Principle and creates no body.
Consider the following statements about the CAQM directions of 30 October 2026:
1. They were issued under Section 12 of the CAQM Act, 2021.
2. They apply from 5 to 20 November 2026.
3. They exempt Metro, railway and airport projects from construction restrictions.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
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Answer: (c) All three. All three are correct. The directions cite Section 12, run from 5 to 20 November 2026, and exempt railways, Metro, airports, inter-state bus terminals, hospitals, water and sanitation, defence and projects of national importance.
Consider the following pollutants:
1. PM2.5
2. Carbon dioxide
3. Ammonia
4. Lead
How many of the above are among the pollutants used in India's National Air Quality Index?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
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Answer: (c) Only three. The National AQI considers eight pollutants: PM10, PM2.5, NO2, SO2, CO, O3, NH3 (ammonia) and Pb (lead). Carbon dioxide is not included. So 1, 3 and 4 are included: only three.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Air pollution in Delhi-NCR tends to peak in early to mid-November.
Statement-II: Low wind speeds and a shallow atmospheric boundary layer in that period reduce dispersal of pollutants.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
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Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct and II explains I. CAQM's review of November AQI data from 2018 to 2025 found recurring spikes, and it cited low wind speed, a shallow boundary layer and reduced vertical mixing as reasons pollutants are trapped.
With reference to the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) for Delhi-NCR, consider the following statements:
1. It has four stages.
2. Stage I is invoked when AQI is in the 'Poor' category.
3. It is a statutory plan enacted by Parliament as a schedule to the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- 1 only
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
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Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only. 1 and 2 are correct: GRAP has four stages, Stage I starting at 'Poor' (201 to 300). 3 is wrong: GRAP is an administrative plan, first notified by the Environment Ministry in 2017 and now revised and enforced by CAQM; it is not a schedule enacted by Parliament.
Which of the following vehicles registered outside Delhi are exempt from the entry restriction under Delhi's Winter Action Plan 2026-27?
- BS-IV diesel cars
- BS-III petrol cars
- CNG and electric vehicles
- All commercial vehicles
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Answer: (c) CNG and electric vehicles. The entry restriction applies to vehicles registered outside Delhi that do not meet BS-VI norms. CNG and electric vehicles, and specified essential and emergency vehicles, are exempt. Being commercial does not by itself exempt a vehicle.
IBBI lets creditors keep completed housing projects out of a builder's insolvency process
Under the IBBI's Fifth Amendment Regulations, 2026, what minimum share of votes in the committee of creditors is needed to recommend excluding a real estate project from the corporate insolvency resolution process?
- 51%
- 60%
- 66%
- 75%
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Answer: (c) 66%. The regulations require not less than 66% of the voting share, with reasons recorded. The resolution professional then applies to the Adjudicating Authority (NCLT), which decides. 66% is also the threshold for approving a resolution plan under Section 30(4) of the IBC.
Consider the following statements about the IBBI's Fifth Amendment Regulations, 2026:
1. The committee of creditors can itself exclude a project from CIRP without approaching the NCLT.
2. The resolution professional must keep a separate bank account for each real estate project.
3. Resolution plans must give project, phase or tower-wise timelines where applicable.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
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Answer: (b) Only two. 1 is wrong: the CoC only recommends exclusion (with at least 66% votes); the RP then applies to the Adjudicating Authority, which decides. 2 and 3 are correct.
Consider the following statements about the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016:
1. Homebuyers in a real estate project are treated as financial creditors.
2. A resolution plan needs the approval of at least 66% of the voting share of the committee of creditors.
3. Operational creditors are voting members of the committee of creditors.
4. The National Company Law Tribunal is the Adjudicating Authority for corporate insolvency.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
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Answer: (c) Only three. 1 is correct (2018 amendment). 2 is correct (Section 30(4)). 3 is wrong: the committee of creditors consists of financial creditors; operational creditors may attend in limited cases but have no vote. 4 is correct.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The IBBI now requires a project-wise technical and cost-to-complete assessment in real estate insolvency cases.
Statement-II: Bidders for a stressed developer need reliable, project-level information on construction status, approvals and costs to frame viable resolution plans.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
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Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct and II explains I. The assessment covers construction progress, approvals, inventory, costs, funding needs, timelines and risks, and must be placed in the information memorandum given to prospective resolution applicants.
With reference to the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016, consider the following statements:
1. Promoters must deposit 70% of amounts realised from allottees for a project in a separate account.
2. Real estate projects above specified size thresholds must be registered with the State Real Estate Regulatory Authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
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Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct. RERA requires 70% of amounts collected from allottees to be kept in a separate account for that project's construction and land cost, and requires registration of projects above the thresholds in the Act (500 square metres or eight apartments).
Under the 2026 IBBI regulations, the monitoring committee that oversees implementation of a resolution plan for a real estate debtor must include:
- Only the successful resolution applicant
- A representative of allottees and, with consent, a RERA representative
- A Reserve Bank of India nominee
- A judge of the NCLT
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Answer: (b) A representative of allottees and, with consent, a RERA representative. The regulations add an authorised representative or a person chosen by a majority of allottees, and representatives of the RERA and the competent authority, subject to their agreement. No RBI nominee or judge sits on it.
NIPGR scientists find a calcium channel that spreads a plant's alarm against insect attack
CNGC13, recently identified by Indian scientists in the context of plant defence, is best described as:
- a bacterial toxin gene used in insect-resistant crops
- a calcium channel that helps relay alarm signals to undamaged leaves
- a pheromone used in insect traps
- an enzyme that synthesises chlorophyll
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Answer: (b) a calcium channel that helps relay alarm signals to undamaged leaves. CNGC13 (cyclic nucleotide gated channel 13) is a calcium-permeable channel in the plant's vascular tissue. NIPGR scientists showed it carries systemic calcium and jasmonate signals after insect attack. Bacterial toxin genes such as cry genes from Bacillus thuringiensis are a different technology.
Consider the following statements about the CNGC13 study by NIPGR:
1. It used Arabidopsis thaliana as the model plant.
2. CNGC13 is located mainly in the leaf's stomata.
3. Caterpillars gained more weight on plants lacking CNGC13.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
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Answer: (b) Only two. 1 is correct. 2 is wrong: CNGC13 is located in the vascular tissue, which is how it relays signals to distant leaves. 3 is correct: Spodoptera litura larvae gained more weight on cngc13 mutants.
Consider the following statements about Arabidopsis thaliana:
1. It belongs to the mustard family.
2. It was the first plant to have its genome sequenced.
3. It has a short life cycle, which makes it useful for genetic studies.
4. It is a major cereal crop in South Asia.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
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Answer: (c) Only three. 1, 2 and 3 are correct: Arabidopsis is in the Brassicaceae, its genome was published in 2000 as the first plant genome, and its life cycle is about six weeks. 4 is wrong: it is a small weed with no crop value.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Plant cells keep the calcium concentration in their cytosol very low.
Statement-II: A low resting level allows a sudden rise in cytosolic calcium to act as a signal.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
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Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct and II explains I. Pumps keep cytosolic calcium low; when channels such as CNGC13 open, calcium rushes in and the spike is read by sensor proteins such as calmodulin.
Jasmonic acid in plants is mainly associated with:
- promoting fruit ripening
- breaking seed dormancy
- defence against chewing insects and wounding
- closing stomata during drought
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Answer: (c) defence against chewing insects and wounding. Jasmonic acid is a lipid-derived hormone that coordinates defence against chewing insects and wounding. Ethylene is linked with fruit ripening, gibberellins with breaking seed dormancy, and abscisic acid with stomatal closure during drought.
With reference to glucosinolates, consider the following statements:
1. They are sulphur-containing defence compounds found in the mustard family.
2. When tissue is damaged, the enzyme myrosinase breaks them down into isothiocyanates.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
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Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct. Glucosinolates are stored in mustard-family plants such as mustard and cabbage; on damage, myrosinase converts them into pungent, toxic isothiocyanates, the so-called mustard oil bomb.
Why social media takedowns are in focus: MeitY advisories and a three-hour removal window
Under the Information Technology Act, 2000, which section empowers the Central Government to issue directions for blocking public access to information through a computer resource?
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Answer: (b) Section 69A. Section 69A allows blocking on grounds such as sovereignty and integrity, defence, security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order and preventing incitement. Section 66A was struck down in 2015; Section 79 deals with intermediary safe harbour; Section 87 is the Centre's rule-making power.
Consider the following statements about the IT (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Amendment Rules, 2026:
1. They reduced the window to remove content after a court order or government intimation from 36 hours to 3 hours.
2. They came into force on 20 February 2026.
3. They reduced the time for resolving general user grievances from 15 days to 7 days.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
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Answer: (c) All three. All three are correct. The 2026 amendment cut the Rule 3(1)(d) window from 36 to 3 hours, came into force on 20 February 2026, and cut the general grievance timeline from 15 to 7 days.
Consider the following statements about the Shreya Singhal v. Union of India judgment (2015):
1. It struck down Section 66A of the IT Act.
2. It struck down Section 69A of the IT Act.
3. It read down Section 79(3)(b) to require a court order or government notification.
4. It was delivered by the Delhi High Court.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
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Answer: (b) Only two. 1 and 3 are correct. 2 is wrong: Section 69A was upheld because it has procedural safeguards and requires recorded reasons. 4 is wrong: it was a Supreme Court judgment.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: A social media platform may remove content quickly after a reasoned intimation from an authorised government officer, even without testing the intimation in detail.
Statement-II: Under Section 79(3)(b) of the IT Act, a platform that fails to act on a lawful notice can lose its safe harbour protection.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
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Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct and II explains I. The threat of losing safe harbour, combined with a 3-hour window, pushes platforms to act quickly rather than scrutinise each notice.
Which of the following is NOT one of the grounds listed in Section 69A of the IT Act, 2000 for blocking public access to information?
Show answer
Answer: (d) Protection of the commercial interests of intermediaries. Section 69A lists sovereignty and integrity of India, defence of India, security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, and preventing incitement to a cognizable offence. Commercial interests of intermediaries are not a ground.
With reference to MeitY's advisories of October 2026, consider the following statements:
1. The 8 October advisory was addressed to all social media intermediaries.
2. The 10 October advisory was addressed only to Meta.
3. The IT Rules, 2021 contain specific provisions regulating recommendation algorithms.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only. 1 and 2 are correct. 3 is wrong: as ThePrint noted, neither the IT Act nor the IT Rules contain provisions on recommendation systems, which is one ground of criticism of the 10 October advisory.