UPSC current affairs quiz, 31 October 2026
30 Prelims-style questions on the day's news, in the formats UPSC uses (statement-based, How many, Statement-I and II), each with the answer and an explanation. Try each one before you open the answer.
World Bank says 49.6 crore Indians crossed the $4.20 poverty line between 2011 and 2023
With reference to the World Bank's global poverty lines updated in June 2025, consider the following pairs:
1. International (extreme) poverty line : USD 3.00 per person per day
2. Lower-middle-income line : USD 4.20 per person per day
3. Upper-middle-income line : USD 6.85 per person per day
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. Pairs 1 and 2 are correct: in June 2025 the World Bank moved to 2021 PPPs, raising the extreme poverty line from USD 2.15 to USD 3.00 and the lower-middle-income line from USD 3.65 to USD 4.20. Pair 3 is wrong: USD 6.85 was the old upper-middle-income line; the new one is USD 8.30.
Consider the following statements about the World Bank's October 2026 Poverty and Equity Brief for India:
1. Poverty at the USD 4.20 a day line fell from 57.7% in 2011 to 16.1% in 2023.
2. Extreme poverty at USD 3.00 a day fell to 2.6% in 2023.
3. The brief found that real earnings of workers rose sharply over the period.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: the brief says real earnings were broadly unchanged and that job growth was concentrated in low-productivity activities.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The World Bank's poverty lines changed in June 2025 even though no country's poverty changed on that day.
Statement-II: The World Bank moved from 2017 to 2021 purchasing power parity prices, which changed the dollar value of its lines.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct and II explains I. The June 2025 update shifted the base to 2021 PPPs, raising the extreme line from USD 2.15 to USD 3.00 and the lower-middle-income line from USD 3.65 to USD 4.20.
According to the World Bank's October 2026 brief, which of the following were drivers of India's poverty decline?
1. Strong growth in household consumption
2. Rising employment, especially among women
3. Social transfers, including food subsidies
4. Rising real earnings in high-productivity jobs
How many of the above are cited as drivers?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (c) Only three. The brief cites consumption growth, rising employment (especially women) and social transfers including food subsidies. It says real earnings were broadly unchanged and job growth was in low-productivity work, so item 4 is not a driver.
Which of the following statements about multidimensional poverty in India is/are correct?
1. OPHI's Multidimensional Poverty Index for India fell from 53.8% in 2005-06 to 16.4% in 2019-21.
2. The World Bank's own multidimensional poverty measure for India was 15.5% in 2022-23.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both figures are given in the World Bank's October 2026 brief: OPHI MPI 53.8% to 16.4%, and the World Bank measure 15.5% in 2022-23.
The World Bank's October 2026 brief projects poverty at the USD 4.20 a day line in India to be about what level by 2028?
- 2.6%
- 12.1%
- 16.1%
- 27.1%
Show answer
Answer: (b) 12.1%. The brief projects poverty at the USD 4.20 line to fall from 14.2% in 2026 to 12.1% by 2028, and calls these indicative microsimulation projections. 2.6% is extreme poverty in 2023, 16.1% is the USD 4.20 rate in 2023, and 27.1% is extreme poverty in 2011.
Census 2027: house-to-house count in most of India to run from 25 January to 28 February
With reference to Census 2027, consider the following statements:
1. The reference date for population enumeration in most States is 00:00 hours on 1 March 2027.
2. Census 2027 will enumerate caste for the first time since the 1931 Census.
3. The census is conducted under the Collection of Statistics Act, 2008.
Which of the statements given above are correct?- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: the census is conducted under the Census Act, 1948; the October 2026 schedule was notified under section 3 of that Act read with the Census Rules, 1990.
Consider the following statements about the Census 2027 schedule notified on 30 October 2026:
1. Self-enumeration will be open from 10 to 24 January 2027.
2. The revisional round will run from 1 to 5 March 2027.
3. Manipur will be enumerated along with the four poll-bound States from 1 December 2026.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: Manipur is excluded 'till further declaration'; only Goa, Uttar Pradesh, Punjab and Uttarakhand follow the 1 December 2026 to 4 January 2027 schedule.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Ladakh and the snow-bound areas of Himachal Pradesh and Jammu and Kashmir were enumerated in September 2026, ahead of the rest of India.
Statement-II: Winter snow makes these areas hard to reach in January and February.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct and II explains I. These areas were counted in September 2026 against a reference date of 1 October 2026 because of accessibility problems caused by winter snow.
Consider the following about the Census Act, 1948:
1. It is a permanent law, so a fresh Act is not needed for each census.
2. Section 15 makes individual census records confidential and inadmissible as evidence.
3. Section 8 requires people to answer census questions truthfully.
4. It vests the conduct of the census in the Election Commission of India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (c) Only three. Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Statement 4 is wrong: the census is run by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner under the Home Ministry, not the Election Commission.
Which of the following are new in Census 2027 compared with Census 2011?
1. Caste enumeration for all communities
2. Collection of data through a mobile application
3. Questions on digital literacy and the number of bank accounts
Select the correct answer using the code given below.- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3. All three are new: caste for all communities (first since 1931), digital collection on a mobile app, and questions on digital literacy and bank accounts among 13 new items.
The freeze on readjusting seats in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies lasts until the first census taken after which year?
- 2011
- 2021
- 2026
- 2031
Show answer
Answer: (c) 2026. Under the 84th and 87th Constitutional Amendments, delimitation is frozen until the first census taken after 2026, which is why Census 2027 matters for seat allocation.
SC: consensual intimacy cannot be branded rape just because the relationship later sours
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, sexual intercourse obtained by deceitful means, including a false promise to marry, is dealt with under which section?
- Section 28
- Section 63
- Section 69
- Section 90
Show answer
Answer: (c) Section 69. Section 69 of the BNS punishes sexual intercourse by deceitful means, with up to ten years' imprisonment. Section 63 defines rape (from IPC section 375), section 28 deals with consent given under fear or misconception (from IPC section 90), and section 90 is an IPC number, not the BNS provision.
Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court's ruling of 30 October 2026:
1. It discharged the accused of rape and cheating charges.
2. It held that a man's withdrawal from a relationship by itself amounts to deception.
3. It said that converting every soured consensual relationship into a rape accusation dilutes the gravity of the offence.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 3 are correct: the Court discharged the accused of rape and cheating, and said such accusations dilute the gravity of the offence. Statement 2 is wrong: the Court said withdrawal from a relationship cannot by itself amount to deception or fraud.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Consent obtained by a false promise to marry, made with no intention of keeping it, may not be valid consent.
Statement-II: Consent given under a misconception of fact is not valid consent under the criminal law.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct and II explains I. A promise made with no intention to keep it creates a misconception of fact; under IPC section 90 (now BNS section 28) such consent is not valid.
Consider the following pairs of IPC and BNS provisions:
1. IPC section 375 : BNS section 63
2. IPC section 90 : BNS section 28
3. IPC section 375 : BNS section 69
4. BNS section 69 : intercourse by deceitful means
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (c) Only three. Pairs 1, 2 and 4 are correct. Pair 3 is wrong: IPC section 375 corresponds to BNS section 63; section 69 is a new BNS offence of intercourse by deceitful means.
In the case decided by the Supreme Court on 30 October 2026, the complainant alleged that the accused had:
- Used force to obtain consent
- Concealed a subsisting marriage and married her
- Promised her government employment
- Impersonated another man
Show answer
Answer: (b) Concealed a subsisting marriage and married her. The woman alleged that the accused concealed his existing marriage and married her in Mysore, and that she consented believing the marriage was lawful. The couple lived together from 1996 to 2003.
With reference to the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It came into force on 1 July 2024.
2. Its section 69 provides a maximum punishment of ten years for intercourse obtained by deceitful means.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct. The BNS replaced the IPC from 1 July 2024, and section 69 provides up to ten years' imprisonment for sexual intercourse by deceitful means.
Centre notifies National Social Security Board for unorganised, gig and platform workers
Under the Code on Social Security, 2020, the contribution of an aggregator towards social security of gig and platform workers is:
- 0.5% to 1% of annual turnover, with no cap
- 1% to 2% of annual turnover, capped at 5% of amounts paid or payable to gig and platform workers
- 2% to 5% of annual profit
- A fixed amount per worker notified by the State Government
Show answer
Answer: (b) 1% to 2% of annual turnover, capped at 5% of amounts paid or payable to gig and platform workers. Section 114(4) of the Code sets the aggregator contribution at not less than 1% and not more than 2% of annual turnover, and a proviso caps it at 5% of the amounts paid or payable by the aggregator to gig and platform workers.
Consider the following statements about the National Social Security Board notified in October 2026:
1. It is chaired by the Union Minister for Labour and Employment.
2. It must meet at least three times a year.
3. Its notification launched a new cash benefit for gig workers.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: the notification creates the Board but announces no new scheme, eligibility rule or payment.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The National Social Security Board has a different membership when it deals with gig and platform workers.
Statement-II: Section 114(6) of the Code on Social Security, 2020 adds representatives of aggregators and of gig and platform workers when the Board acts for them.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct and II explains I. Section 114(6) provides that for gig and platform matters the Board includes five representatives each of aggregators and workers, five State representatives, the DG of ESIC and the Central PF Commissioner.
Which of the following are functions of the National Social Security Board?
1. Recommending schemes for unorganised, gig and platform workers
2. Monitoring centrally administered welfare schemes for them
3. Reviewing expenditure from the social security fund and account
4. Adjudicating disputes between aggregators and workers
How many of the above are functions of the Board?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (c) Only three. Items 1, 2 and 3 are among the Board's six functions. Item 4 is not: the Board recommends, advises, monitors and reviews; it is not an adjudicating body.
Under the Social Security (Central) Rules, 2026, a gig worker working for several aggregators qualifies for benefits after how many days of work in the previous financial year?
- 60 days
- 90 days
- 120 days
- 180 days
Show answer
Answer: (c) 120 days. The rules require 90 days with a single aggregator, or 120 days across multiple aggregators, in the previous financial year.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The Code on Social Security, 2020 consolidates nine earlier social security laws.
2. The four labour codes came into force on 21 November 2025.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct. The Code on Social Security consolidates nine laws, and all four codes (Wages, Social Security, Industrial Relations, and Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions) came into force on 21 November 2025.
Centre's fiscal deficit reaches 42.1% of the 2026-27 target in the first half of the year
Consider the following statements about the Centre's finances in April to September 2026:
1. The fiscal deficit was 42.1% of the full-year Budget Estimate.
2. The full-year fiscal deficit target for 2026-27 is 4.3% of GDP.
3. The fiscal deficit for the period was lower in absolute terms than in April to September 2025.
Which of the statements given above are correct?- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: the deficit rose to ₹7,14,413 crore from ₹5,73,123 crore in the same period of 2025-26.
Consider the following statements about the Centre's accounts for April to September 2026:
1. Net tax revenue reached 44.5% of the Budget Estimate.
2. Total expenditure reached 47.7% of the Budget Estimate.
3. The fiscal deficit reached more than half of the full-year target.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: the fiscal deficit was 42.1% of the full-year target, less than half.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Excise duty collections of the Centre fell sharply in the first half of 2026-27.
Statement-II: Excise duties on petrol and diesel were cut.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct and II explains I. ICRA attributed the sharp fall in excise collections to cuts in duty on petrol and diesel.
Consider the following items:
1. Salaries of government employees
2. Interest payments
3. Construction of a national highway
4. Food and fertiliser subsidies
How many of the above are revenue expenditure of the Union Government?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (c) Only three. Salaries, interest payments and subsidies are revenue expenditure because they create no assets. Building a national highway is capital expenditure.
The fiscal deficit of the Union Government is best defined as:
- Revenue expenditure minus revenue receipts
- Total expenditure minus total receipts other than borrowings
- Fiscal deficit minus interest payments
- Total expenditure minus tax revenue
Show answer
Answer: (b) Total expenditure minus total receipts other than borrowings. Fiscal deficit is total expenditure minus total receipts excluding borrowings, i.e. the government's borrowing requirement. Option 1 is revenue deficit and option 3 is primary deficit.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The Centre's fiscal deficit target for 2026-27 is 4.3% of GDP.
2. The Centre achieved its 2025-26 fiscal deficit target of 4.4% of GDP.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct. The 2026-27 target is ₹16.96 lakh crore or 4.3% of GDP, and CGA data showed the 2025-26 target of 4.4% of GDP was met.