UPSC current affairs quiz, 5 November 2026

Consider the following statements:
1. Article 243F of the Constitution allows a State Legislature to lay down, by law, grounds of disqualification for members of a Panchayat.
2. In Javed v. State of Haryana (2003), the Supreme Court struck down a two-child disqualification for panchayat posts.
3. A Bench of two judges of the Supreme Court cannot overrule a judgment delivered by a Bench of three judges.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court's ruling of 4 November 2026:
1. It was delivered by a Constitution Bench of five judges.
2. It struck down Section 14(1)(j-1) of the Maharashtra Village Panchayats Act, 1959.
3. It linked reproductive decisions to personal liberty under Article 21.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Supreme Court Bench that heard Mangala Ingle's appeal referred Javed v. State of Haryana to a larger Bench instead of overruling it.
Statement-II: Javed v. State of Haryana was decided by a Bench of three judges, and a smaller Bench cannot overrule a larger Bench's decision.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

With reference to the total fertility rate (TFR), consider the following statements:
1. TFR is the average number of children a woman would bear over her reproductive life at current age-specific fertility rates.
2. A TFR of about 2.1 is called the replacement level.
3. The Supreme Court in 2026 cited India's TFR as 1.9.
4. India's TFR was about 3 in 2003.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Which one of the following States was NOT listed among those that still retain a two-child bar for local body elections, as per the amicus curiae's compilation?

1. Odisha
2. Uttarakhand
3. Haryana
4. Assam

Consider the following statements:
1. Part IX of the Constitution, on panchayats, was added by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment.
2. Under Article 243F, a person can be disqualified from panchayat membership by or under a law made by the State Legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

After the Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016, Entry 54 of the State List covers taxes on the sale of which of the following?
1. Petroleum crude
2. Natural gas
3. Alcoholic liquor for human consumption
4. Pharmaceutical products
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 3 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Consider the following statements about Arjun Flour Mills v. State of Odisha (2026):
1. It was decided by a seven-judge Bench.
2. The Court struck down Section 5-A of the Orissa Sales Tax Act, 1947.
3. The Court said S. Kodar governs the question of State legislative competence.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Supreme Court held in 2026 that the conflict between Kodar and India Cement no longer survived.
Statement-II: In 2024, a nine-judge Bench held that royalty on minerals is not a tax.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

With reference to the Constitution (101st Amendment) Act, 2016, consider the following statements:
1. It inserted Article 246A.
2. It substituted Entry 54 of the State List.
3. It created the GST Council under Article 279A.
4. It placed a general power to tax income in the State List.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

In tax law, the 'nature versus measure' distinction means that:

1. The rate of a tax decides which legislature may levy it
2. The thing on which a tax truly falls decides the list, even if its amount is calculated using another base
3. A tax measured on another tax is always invalid
4. States may levy any tax so long as it is earmarked for a fund

Consider the following statements:
1. Article 266 provides that revenues received by a State form part of the Consolidated Fund of the State.
2. In Arjun Flour Mills, the Supreme Court finally decided whether Punjab's social security cess could bypass the Consolidated Fund.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

With reference to the Fast Track Special Courts (FTSC) scheme, consider the following statements:
1. It is a Central Sector Scheme fully funded by the Union government.
2. The Central share is funded from the Nirbhaya Fund.
3. It covers trials of rape cases and of offences under the POCSO Act, 2012.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Consider the following statements about the FTSC scheme as extended in November 2026:
1. It will run till 31 March 2031.
2. The number of courts is planned to rise to 850.
3. Each court has two judicial officers.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The FTSC scheme requires States and Union Territories to bear part of its cost.
Statement-II: The FTSC scheme is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

With reference to the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012, consider the following statements:
1. It protects persons below 18 years of age.
2. It provides for Special Courts to try offences under the Act.
3. It expects a Special Court to complete the trial within one year of taking cognizance, as far as possible.
4. It applies only to girls.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

The Supreme Court direction of 25 July 2019 that led to exclusive POCSO courts asked for such a court in every district with:

1. More than 50 pending POCSO cases
2. More than 100 pending POCSO cases
3. More than 500 pending POCSO cases
4. Any pending POCSO case older than one year

Consider the following statements:
1. The FTSC scheme has disposed of more than four lakh cases since its launch.
2. FTSCs currently function in all 36 States and Union Territories.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Consider the following statements:
1. Double-fortified salt is fortified with iodine and iron.
2. Iron from plant foods (non-haem iron) is absorbed better when eaten with tea.
3. Hepcidin, a hormone, reduces iron absorption during infection and inflammation.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Consider the following statements about anaemia in NFHS-5 (2019-21):
1. 67.1% of children aged 6 to 59 months were anaemic.
2. Anaemia among women aged 15 to 49 fell compared with NFHS-4.
3. Anaemia among men aged 15 to 49 was 25%.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Universal iron fortification of salt can pose risks for people with thalassaemia.
Statement-II: People with thalassaemia are prone to iron overload, and the body cannot easily excrete excess iron.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Which of the following reduce the absorption of non-haem iron from a meal?
1. Phytates in cereals
2. Polyphenols in tea
3. Vitamin C
4. Calcium
How many of the above reduce absorption?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

The op-ed argues that double-fortified salt may poorly reach those who most need iron because:

1. Salt is not sold in rural areas
2. Young children and women eat the least salt, while adult men eat the most
3. Iron makes salt taste bitter, so it is rejected
4. DFS is banned in the Public Distribution System

Consider the following statements:
1. Anaemia Mukt Bharat was launched in 2018.
2. Its original framework was the 6x6x6 strategy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Consider the following statements:
1. Article 6.2 of the Paris Agreement provides for cooperative approaches in which countries transfer mitigation outcomes between them.
2. A corresponding adjustment ensures that a transferred emission reduction is not counted by both the selling and the buying country.
3. The European Union's Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism entered its definitive phase on 1 January 2026.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Consider the following statements about the op-ed's proposals for the BRICS Carbon Markets Partnership:
1. It recommends an immediate common BRICS trading platform.
2. It recommends common measurement, reporting and verification rules for CBAM-exposed sectors.
3. It suggests a small pilot under Article 6.2 among two or three members.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Exporters to the EU benefit from having verifiable data on the emissions embedded in their products.
Statement-II: Under CBAM, importers who cannot show actual embedded emissions may be charged on default values.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

With reference to India's Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS), consider the following statements:
1. It was notified under the Energy Conservation Act, 2001.
2. Its compliance mechanism sets absolute caps on total national emissions.
3. The United Kingdom lists it among qualifying overseas carbon pricing schemes.
4. It is linked to China's national emissions trading system.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Which one of the following is NOT among the goods covered by the EU's Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism?

1. Iron and steel
2. Aluminium
3. Fertilisers
4. Textiles

Consider the following statements:
1. The New Delhi Declaration of 2026 opposed unilateral, punitive, discriminatory and protectionist measures.
2. The BRICS Carbon Markets Partnership already has binding emission targets for members.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2