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UPSC current affairs quiz, 6 November 2026

30 Prelims-style questions on the day's news, in the formats UPSC uses (statement-based, How many, Statement-I and II), each with the answer and an explanation. Try each one before you open the answer.

Read 6 November 2026 first5 November 2026 quizTimed test in the app

SC: 24-hour clock to produce an accused starts at detention, not formal arrest

  1. With reference to Article 22 of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
    1. A person who is arrested and detained in custody must be produced before the nearest magistrate within 24 hours, excluding the time needed for the journey.
    2. The protections of Article 22(1) and 22(2) apply equally to a person held under a preventive detention law.
    3. A person arrested has the right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner of his choice.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 1 and 3 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only. Statement 1 is correct: it is the rule in Article 22(2). Statement 2 is wrong: Article 22(3) says clauses (1) and (2) do not apply to enemy aliens or to persons arrested or detained under a preventive detention law. Statement 3 is correct: Article 22(1) gives the right to be told the grounds of arrest and to consult a lawyer of one's choice.

  2. Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court ruling of 5 November 2026:
    1. The 24-hour period under Article 22(2) begins when an arrest is formally recorded.
    2. Time taken during a search and seizure before formal arrest counts towards the 24 hours.
    3. Magistrates must record the actual date and time when a person's liberty was curtailed.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is wrong: the court held the clock runs from actual detention, not formal arrest. Statement 2 is correct: the court said no pre-arrest period can be excluded except the journey to the magistrate. Statement 3 is correct: this is one of the court's directions. So two are correct.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: The Supreme Court ordered the release of four NDPS accused from Tripura even though the High Court had refused them bail.
    Statement-II: The accused had not been produced before a magistrate within 24 hours of the time they were first detained.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. The release was ordered because the 24-hour limit, counted from detention at about 2 pm on 29 September 2025, was breached, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.

  4. Consider the following statements about Article 22 of the Constitution:
    1. It gives an arrested person the right to be informed of the grounds of arrest.
    2. It gives an arrested person the right to consult a legal practitioner of his choice.
    3. It allows preventive detention beyond three months only with an Advisory Board opinion or under a law made by Parliament.
    4. Its clauses (1) and (2) do not apply to enemy aliens.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) All four. All four are correct. Statements 1 and 2 come from Article 22(1); statement 3 from Article 22(4) read with clause (7); statement 4 from Article 22(3).

  5. Which of the following High Court rulings did the Supreme Court disapprove of in its ruling on the 24-hour period?
    1. A ruling of the Orissa High Court
    2. A ruling of the Kerala High Court in Arun K. Thomas
    3. A ruling of the Madras High Court in Kannan
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3. The court disapproved all three: the Orissa High Court's Aryaman Pattnayak ruling, the Kerala High Court's Arun K. Thomas ruling and the Madras High Court's Kannan ruling, which had let the pre-arrest period be excluded.

  6. In which case did the Supreme Court lay down guidelines requiring an arrest memo attested by a witness and notice of arrest to a relative or friend?

    1. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
    2. D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal
    3. A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
    4. Joginder Kumar v. State of U.P.
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal. D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal (decided December 1996, reported 1997) set these guidelines. Maneka Gandhi (1978) widened 'procedure established by law' under Article 21. A.K. Gopalan (1950) concerned preventive detention. Joginder Kumar (1994) dealt with the need to justify an arrest but is not the source of the arrest memo rule.

NPCI tells Supreme Court zero-MDR UPI is unsustainable, defends 0.4% merchant fee

  1. With reference to the revised UPI merchant discount rate (MDR) framework defended by NPCI in the Supreme Court in November 2026, consider the following statements:
    1. An MDR of up to 0.4% applies to all UPI payments above ₹2,000, including person-to-person transfers.
    2. Merchants are not allowed to pass the MDR on to customers.
    3. UPI apps are not allowed to levy platform fees on users.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only. Statement 1 is wrong: the MDR applies only to person-to-merchant payments above ₹2,000; person-to-person transfers stay free. Statements 2 and 3 are correct: NPCI told the court the non-pass-through rule is binding and apps cannot levy platform fees.

  2. Consider the following statements about NPCI's affidavit in the Supreme Court:
    1. NPCI said about 96% of person-to-merchant UPI payments will remain unaffected by the MDR.
    2. NPCI described the MDR as a tax levied by the government.
    3. NPCI said the 0.4% ceiling is lower than card charges.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is wrong: NPCI said MDR is a commercial charge shared among ecosystem participants, not a tax or government fee.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: NPCI argued that petitioners cannot enforce Articles 14 and 19(1)(g) against it through a writ under Article 32.
    Statement-II: NPCI claims it is not 'State' within the meaning of Article 12.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I: fundamental rights under Article 32 are enforceable against 'State', so NPCI's objection rests on its claim that it is not 'State'.

  4. Consider the following statements about NPCI:
    1. It was promoted by the RBI and the Indian Banks' Association.
    2. It is registered as a not-for-profit company.
    3. It operates under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007.
    4. It was authorised to operate UPI in August 2016.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) All four. All four are correct. NPCI is a not-for-profit company (now under Section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013) promoted by the RBI and IBA under the 2007 Act, and NPCI cited its August 2016 authorisation for UPI.

  5. Which of the following were cited by NPCI to show the cost gap under zero MDR?
    1. The ₹2,000 crore budget allocation covered only 11% of industry costs.
    2. The Finance Ministry estimated industry operating costs at ₹20,700 crore.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both figures were cited: the Standing Committee finding that the ₹2,000 crore allocation covered 11% of industry costs, and the Finance Ministry estimate of ₹20,700 crore in operating costs.

  6. Under the revised framework, the MDR on UPI applies to which of the following?

    1. All person-to-person transfers above ₹2,000
    2. Person-to-merchant payments above ₹2,000, except merchants with monthly UPI credits up to ₹1 lakh
    3. All person-to-merchant payments regardless of value
    4. Only payments made through RuPay credit cards linked to UPI
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Person-to-merchant payments above ₹2,000, except merchants with monthly UPI credits up to ₹1 lakh. The MDR of up to 0.4% applies to person-to-merchant payments above ₹2,000; small merchants with monthly inward UPI credits up to ₹1 lakh stay in a zero-MDR category, and person-to-person transfers are free.

CERT-In issues AI security audit guidelines with four risk tiers and agentic AI checks

  1. With reference to CERT-In's AI Security Auditing Guidelines issued in November 2026, consider the following statements:
    1. They classify AI systems into four risk tiers.
    2. If an auditor and the organisation disagree on the tier, the lower tier applies.
    3. They apply only to AI systems developed by government departments.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct: the tiers are Low, Moderate, High and Critical. Statement 2 is wrong: the higher tier applies when they disagree. Statement 3 is wrong: the guidelines cover AI systems developed or operated in India, or processing Indian data or serving Indian users, not only government systems.

  2. Consider the following statements about CERT-In's AI Security Auditing Guidelines, 2026:
    1. Tier 1 systems need only a self-assessment or basic internal review each year.
    2. Sole-auditor engagements are allowed for Critical-tier systems.
    3. An AI Impact Assessment is mandatory for Tier 3 and Tier 4 systems.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is wrong: sole-auditor engagements are not permitted for Tier 3 and Tier 4 systems.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Under CERT-In's guidelines, an AI system that autonomously executes code or financial transactions may be placed in a higher risk tier than its composite score suggests.
    Statement-II: Autonomous execution of code, transactions or external communications is listed as an escalation trigger.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. Escalation triggers can raise a tier regardless of the composite score, and autonomous execution is one of them, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.

  4. Consider the following, with reference to auditing agentic AI under CERT-In's guidelines:
    1. Whether an agent can exceed its authorised permissions
    2. Misuse of credentials by an agent
    3. Whether emergency-stop mechanisms work
    4. Risks from an agent's persistent memory
    How many of the above are areas the guidelines ask auditors to examine?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) All four. All four are covered: the guidelines address excessive agency and permissions, credential misuse, the working of emergency stops and persistent-memory risks.

  5. The six-hour deadline for reporting cyber incidents to CERT-In and the 180-day log retention rule are associated with which of the following?

    1. The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 alone
    2. CERT-In's reporting requirements, which the 2026 AI guidelines apply to AI-related incidents
    3. The Telecommunications Act, 2023
    4. The RBI's guidelines on digital lending
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) CERT-In's reporting requirements, which the 2026 AI guidelines apply to AI-related incidents. The six-hour reporting and 180-day log rules come from CERT-In's requirements (its Directions of 2022), and the AI guidelines apply them to AI-related security incidents.

  6. Which of the following frameworks do CERT-In's AI audit guidelines draw upon?
    1. ISO/IEC 42001
    2. NIST AI Risk Management Framework
    3. MITRE ATLAS
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3. All three are cited, along with OWASP guidance and MeitY's India AI Governance Guidelines. ISO/IEC 42001 is the AI management system standard; MITRE ATLAS catalogues attacks on AI systems.

Editorial: After four deaths in Ujjain, why India keeps losing sanitation workers

  1. With reference to the Supreme Court's judgment in Dr. Balram Singh v. Union of India (2023), consider the following statements:
    1. It fixed compensation of ₹30 lakh for the family of a worker who dies in sewer cleaning.
    2. It set compensation of at least ₹20 lakh for permanent disability that leaves the victim economically helpless.
    3. It allowed outsourced contracts to require entry into sewers if safety gear is provided.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: the court directed that outsourced sewer work must not require anyone to enter sewers.

  2. Consider the following statements:
    1. The Manual Scavengers Act, 2013 prohibits employing any person, directly or indirectly, for hazardous cleaning of a sewer or septic tank.
    2. The Act applies only to private persons and not to local authorities.
    3. The government has said since 2021 that manual cleaning of excreta from insanitary latrines has ended.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the prohibition covers any person, local authority or agency.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Contractors and municipal bodies often escape liability for sewer deaths.
    Statement-II: They often hire undocumented daily-wage workers for sewer cleaning.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct, and the editorial links them: hiring undocumented daily-wage workers helps contractors and civic bodies avoid liability, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.

  4. Consider the following statements about NCSK data on sewer and septic tank deaths:
    1. 859 deaths were recorded from 2014 to 2025.
    2. 31 deaths were recorded in 2026 up to 20 October.
    3. Full compensation had been paid in all 31 cases of 2026.
    4. NCSK says it has a statutory mandate to maintain a complete database of such deaths.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: full compensation was paid in only nine cases. Statement 4 is wrong: NCSK says it has no statutory mandate to maintain a comprehensive database and its figures may be revised.

  5. The Supreme Court in Dr. Balram Singh v. Union of India relied on which of the following Articles?
    1. Article 15(2)
    2. Article 17
    3. Article 23
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3. The judgment cited Articles 15(2), 17, 23 and 24: equal access to public places, abolition of untouchability, prohibition of forced labour and of child labour in hazardous work.

  6. Which of the following did The Hindu's editorial of 6 November 2026 recommend to end sewer deaths?

    1. Raising compensation above ₹30 lakh as the main remedy
    2. A goal of zero human entry into sewers, with liability for principal employers
    3. Transferring all sewer cleaning to private contractors
    4. Ending inspections of private establishments to reduce costs
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) A goal of zero human entry into sewers, with liability for principal employers. The editorial calls for zero human entry through mechanisation, principal employer liability, an independent public record, formal employment and inspections that extend to private establishments.

Explained: How tokamaks hold a star's fire, and where India stands in fusion research

  1. With reference to the International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER), consider the following statements:
    1. It is being built in France.
    2. India is one of its seven members.
    3. It is designed to supply electricity to the European grid.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. Statements 1 and 2 are correct: ITER is at Cadarache, France, and its seven members are China, the EU, India, Japan, South Korea, Russia and the U.S. Statement 3 is wrong: ITER is an experiment that will not generate electricity.

  2. Consider the following statements about deuterium-tritium fusion:
    1. It produces helium and a fast neutron.
    2. Most of the energy released is carried by the helium nucleus.
    3. Tritium for future reactors is expected to be bred from lithium.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is wrong: about 80% of the 17.6 MeV (14.1 MeV) goes to the neutron, not the helium nucleus.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: A tokamak confines plasma using magnetic fields rather than material walls.
    Statement-II: Fusion plasma is far hotter than any material wall can withstand.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. Because no material can withstand plasma at temperatures of the order of 150 million °C, the tokamak uses magnetic confinement, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.

  4. Consider the following countries or groupings:
    1. India
    2. European Union
    3. Brazil
    4. South Korea
    How many of the above are members of ITER?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. India, the European Union and South Korea are members. Brazil is not. ITER's seven members are China, the EU, India, Japan, South Korea, Russia and the U.S. So three are members.

  5. Consider the following statements about India's fusion research:
    1. The ADITYA tokamak began operation in 1989.
    2. SST-1 is a steady-state superconducting tokamak at the Institute for Plasma Research.
    3. India's contribution to ITER is mostly in cash rather than components.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: India supplies about 10% as in-kind contributions, such as the cryostat, cryolines and power supplies.

  6. In which of the following does a stellarator differ from a tokamak?

    1. It uses lasers instead of magnets
    2. It creates the twisted magnetic field with complex external coils, without relying on a large current through the plasma
    3. It uses fission instead of fusion
    4. It needs no vacuum chamber
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) It creates the twisted magnetic field with complex external coils, without relying on a large current through the plasma. A stellarator is also a magnetic confinement device, but it twists the field using complex external coils alone, while a tokamak relies partly on a current driven through the plasma. Lasers are used in inertial confinement.