Pratidin

UPSC current affairs quiz, 13 November 2026

30 Prelims-style questions on the day's news, in the formats UPSC uses (statement-based, How many, Statement-I and II), each with the answer and an explanation. Try each one before you open the answer.

Read 13 November 2026 first12 November 2026 quizTimed test in the app

Retail inflation rises to 6.09% in October 2026, breaching the RBI's 6% upper limit

  1. With reference to the inflation-targeting framework in India, consider the following statements:
    1. The inflation target is set by the Government of India in consultation with the Reserve Bank of India.
    2. A single month of CPI inflation above 6% is treated as a failure to meet the target.
    3. The Monetary Policy Committee decides the policy repo rate.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 1 and 3 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only. Statement 1 is correct: under the RBI Act, 1934 the Centre sets the target in consultation with the RBI. Statement 2 is wrong: failure means average inflation outside the 2% to 6% band for three consecutive quarters, not one month. Statement 3 is correct: the six-member MPC fixes the policy repo rate.

  2. Consider the following statements about India's October 2026 CPI data:
    1. Headline CPI inflation rose above 6% for the first time in two years.
    2. Food inflation measured by the CFPI was lower than headline inflation.
    3. Onion prices rose more than 100% year on year.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is correct: 6.09% was the first breach of 6% since October 2024. Statement 2 is wrong: CFPI inflation was 8.94%, above the 6.09% headline. Statement 3 is correct: onion prices rose 116.22%. So two are correct.

  3. Consider the following statements about the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC):
    1. It has six members.
    2. Three of its members are from the RBI, including the Governor.
    3. The Governor has a casting vote in case of a tie.
    4. Its decisions require approval of the Union Finance Ministry.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct: the MPC has six members, three from the RBI including the Governor, who has a casting vote. Statement 4 is wrong: MPC decisions on the repo rate are binding on the RBI and need no ministry approval. So three are correct.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: The RBI is not legally deemed to have failed its inflation target merely because CPI inflation exceeded 6% in October 2026.
    Statement-II: Under the inflation-targeting framework, failure means average inflation outside the 2% to 6% band for three consecutive quarters.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. One monthly breach does not meet the definition of failure, which requires three consecutive quarters outside the band. Statement-II therefore explains Statement-I.

  5. In the CPI series released for October 2026, which division recorded its first double-digit inflation reading in the new series?

    1. Transport
    2. Health
    3. Restaurant and accommodation services
    4. Clothing and footwear
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Restaurant and accommodation services. Restaurant and accommodation services rose 10.06%. Transport was about 5.8%, health about 2.05% and clothing and footwear close to 5%.

  6. Consider the following statements:
    1. The current CPI series uses 2024 as its base year.
    2. The CPI is compiled and released by the Reserve Bank of India.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct: the series has base 2024 = 100. Statement 2 is wrong: CPI is released by the National Statistics Office under MoSPI; the RBI uses it for policy.

WHO TB report 2026: India's TB deaths fall 38% since 2015, ahead of 35% global fall

  1. With reference to the WHO Global Tuberculosis Report 2026, consider the following statements:
    1. Global TB deaths in 2025 were 35% below the 2015 level.
    2. Global TB incidence fell by 50% between 2015 and 2025.
    3. India accounted for about a quarter of global TB cases.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only. Statement 1 is correct: deaths are 35% below 2015, the End TB Strategy's first milestone. Statement 2 is wrong: incidence fell only about 14%, against a target of 50% by 2025. Statement 3 is correct: India has about 25% of global cases.

  2. Consider the following statements about tuberculosis:
    1. It is caused by a virus.
    2. Lung TB spreads through the air.
    3. Undernutrition raises the risk of developing active TB.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is wrong: TB is caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Statement 2 is correct: it spreads through air when a person with lung TB coughs or sneezes. Statement 3 is correct: undernutrition, HIV, diabetes and tobacco raise the risk. So two are correct.

  3. Consider the following statements about the TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan's intensified campaigns:
    1. The first 100-day campaign began on 7 December 2024 in 347 high-priority districts.
    2. The second 100-day campaign targeted 1.58 lakh high-risk villages and wards.
    3. Over 25 crore people were screened between December 2024 and November 2026.
    4. All TB cases found in the campaign had symptoms.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct as per Health Ministry data. Statement 4 is wrong: 14.97 lakh of the 48.64 lakh cases found were asymptomatic. So three are correct.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: The WHO Global Tuberculosis Report 2026 says the End TB Strategy's first milestone on TB deaths was reached in 2025.
    Statement-II: Global TB incidence fell by 50% between 2015 and 2025.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. Statement-I is correct: deaths fell 35% from 2015, meeting the first milestone about five years late. Statement-II is wrong: incidence fell only about 14%, far short of the 50% target.

  5. Which of the following data sources were used to estimate India's TB mortality in the WHO Global Tuberculosis Report 2026?
    1. Sample Registration System
    2. Community-based verbal autopsy
    3. Ni-kshay portal data
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3. All three were used: the Registrar General's Sample Registration System, community verbal autopsy assessments and Ni-kshay programme data.

  6. Consider the following statements:
    1. India meets most of its TB programme funding needs from domestic sources.
    2. International donor funding for TB rose in 2025.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct: 96% of India's programme needs are met domestically. Statement 2 is wrong: international donor funding fell 14%, from $1.1 billion to $0.94 billion.

NITI Aayog-IIMA review: PLI schemes have paid out 18.5% of their ₹1.91 lakh crore outlay

  1. With reference to the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) schemes, consider the following statements:
    1. Incentives are paid on incremental sales after firms meet investment and output thresholds.
    2. By March 2026, more than half of the total PLI outlay had been disbursed.
    3. Employment created under PLI by March 2026 was below one-third of the target.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 1 and 3 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only. Statement 1 is correct: PLI pays a share of incremental sales after targets are met. Statement 2 is wrong: only 18.51% had been disbursed. Statement 3 is correct: 8.49 lakh jobs is 28% of the 30.18 lakh target.

  2. Consider the following statements about the PLI mid-course assessment (2026):
    1. Production and sales had reached 64% of target by March 2026.
    2. Investment was further from its target than employment.
    3. Nearly 70% of targeted segments were broadly on track.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: investment was at 76% of target while employment was at only 28%. Statement 3 is correct. So two are correct.

  3. Consider the following PLI sectors as described in the 2026 assessment:
    1. Large-scale electronics manufacturing showed growth in production, exports and jobs.
    2. Advanced Chemistry Cell batteries had moved into full commercial production.
    3. White goods saw domestic value addition rise to 55% in FY25.
    4. Bulk drugs showed mixed results.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct. Statement 2 is wrong: ACC batteries are at an early stage, with investment tied up in capacity creation and commissioning. So three are correct.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Only about 18.5% of the total PLI outlay had been disbursed by March 2026.
    Statement-II: PLI incentives are released only after firms meet investment and incremental production targets.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. Because payouts follow verified performance, disbursement lags commitments; this partly explains the low 18.5% figure, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.

  5. In the PLI assessment, which concern was raised specifically about the telecom and networking PLI scheme?

    1. It had disbursed more than 75% of its outlay
    2. It does not mandate domestic value addition
    3. It was limited to MSMEs
    4. It had no investment by March 2026
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) It does not mandate domestic value addition. The assessment notes the telecom scheme does not mandate domestic value addition, so firms can import components and still claim incentives. The drones scheme, not telecom, disbursed about 77.5%.

  6. Consider the following statements:
    1. The PLI schemes were designed primarily as MSME support schemes.
    2. The assessment recommends combining supply-side support with demand-side incentives for domestically made products.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2 only. Statement 1 is wrong: PLI schemes were not designed primarily for MSMEs; benefits were expected through supply chains. Statement 2 is correct.

SC: a grandson has no birthright in property his father got on partition under Section 8

  1. With reference to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, consider the following statements:
    1. Section 8 lays down the rules of succession for the property of a Hindu male who dies intestate.
    2. A son's son is a Class I heir of his grandfather even when his own father is alive.
    3. The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005 made daughters coparceners by birth.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only. Statement 1 is correct: Section 8 governs intestate succession to a Hindu male's property. Statement 2 is wrong: a grandson is a Class I heir only as the son of a predeceased son. Statement 3 is correct: the 2005 amendment to Section 6 made daughters coparceners by birth.

  2. Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court's ruling in J. Rajesh v. M. Kumaran (2026):
    1. The Court held that the father's share, received on partition, was his exclusive property.
    2. The Court applied Section 29A of the Tamil Nadu amendment in the grandson's favour.
    3. The grandson had challenged the 1994 compromise decree.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Only one. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the Court held Section 29A did not apply because the appellant was not a surviving coparcener when succession opened. Statement 3 is wrong: he had not challenged the 1994 decree or the 1997 sale deeds. So only one is correct.

  3. Consider the following statements about Hindu law:
    1. Under the Mitakshara school, a son acquires an interest in ancestral coparcenary property by birth.
    2. The Dayabhaga school gives children a right by birth in the father's property.
    3. The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 applies to Buddhists, Jains and Sikhs as well.
    4. Since the 2005 amendment, daughters are coparceners by birth.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct. Statement 2 is wrong: under Dayabhaga there is no right by birth; children inherit only on the father's death. So three are correct.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: A grandson cannot claim a share by birth in land his father received on partition of the grandfather's estate under Section 8 of the Hindu Succession Act.
    Statement-II: Heirs who take property under Section 8 hold it as tenants in common, and on partition each share becomes the heir's separate property.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct, and Statement-II is the reason the Court gave: because the father's share became his separate property, there was nothing ancestral in which the grandson could claim a birthright.

  5. Which one of the following judgments did the Supreme Court rely on to hold that property inherited under Section 8 is not joint family property in the hands of the heir?

    1. Vineeta Sharma v. Rakesh Sharma
    2. CWT v. Chander Sen
    3. Shayara Bano v. Union of India
    4. Danamma v. Amar
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) CWT v. Chander Sen. CWT v. Chander Sen (1986) held that what a son inherits from his father under Section 8 is his own property. Vineeta Sharma (2020) concerns daughters' coparcenary rights; Shayara Bano (2017) concerns triple talaq.

  6. With reference to the right to property in India, consider the following statements:
    1. It is a constitutional right under Article 300A.
    2. It continues to be a Fundamental Right under Part III.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct: Article 300A says no person shall be deprived of property save by authority of law. Statement 2 is wrong: the 44th Amendment (1978) removed property from the Fundamental Rights.

Global Carbon Budget 2026: world fossil CO2 to dip 0.4%, but India's to rise 4.4%

  1. With reference to the Global Carbon Budget 2026, consider the following statements:
    1. Global fossil CO2 emissions are projected to fall in 2026.
    2. China's fossil CO2 emissions are projected to rise faster than India's in 2026.
    3. Total CO2 emissions including land-use change are projected to reach a record high.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only. Statement 1 is correct: a fall of about 0.4%. Statement 2 is wrong: China is projected to fall 0.9% while India rises 4.4%. Statement 3 is correct: total CO2 reaches a record 43.3 Gt because land-use emissions rose.

  2. Consider the following statements about projected 2026 fossil CO2 emissions in the Global Carbon Budget 2026:
    1. India's emissions are projected to rise faster than its average of the past decade.
    2. The European Union's emissions are projected to fall.
    3. The United States' emissions are projected to rise.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is correct: 4.4% against a decade average of 3.5% a year. Statement 2 is correct: the EU is projected to fall 1.5%. Statement 3 is wrong: the US is projected to fall 1.3%. So two are correct.

  3. Consider the following statements about global CO2 emissions in 2026 as per the Global Carbon Budget 2026:
    1. Oil emissions fell.
    2. Coal emissions fell.
    3. Land-use emissions rose compared with 2025.
    4. Total CO2 emissions including land use reached a record high.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct: oil fell 1.9%, land-use emissions rose to about 5.1 Gt from 4.4 Gt, and total CO2 hit a record 43.3 Gt. Statement 2 is wrong: coal emissions rose slightly. So three are correct.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: The Global Carbon Budget 2026 projects global fossil CO2 emissions to fall in 2026.
    Statement-II: Oil emissions are projected to fall about 1.9% in 2026, linked to the Iran conflict and the closure of the Strait of Hormuz.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. Global fossil CO2 is projected to fall about 0.4%, and the report names the 1.9% fall in oil emissions, linked to the Iran conflict and the Strait of Hormuz closure, as the main driver, while coal still rose slightly. Statement-II explains Statement-I.

  5. India's updated Nationally Determined Contribution (2022) under the Paris Agreement commits India to reduce, by 2030 from 2005 levels,

    1. absolute CO2 emissions by 45%
    2. the emissions intensity of its GDP by 45%
    3. coal consumption by 45%
    4. per capita emissions by 45%
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) the emissions intensity of its GDP by 45%. India's target is a 45% cut in the emissions intensity of GDP (emissions per unit of GDP), not absolute, coal or per capita emissions. India has pledged net zero by 2070.

  6. Consider the following statements:
    1. Under the Paris Agreement, each country sets its own Nationally Determined Contribution.
    2. The principle of common but differentiated responsibilities requires developing countries to cut emissions at the same pace as developed countries.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct: NDCs are nationally determined. Statement 2 is wrong: CBDR recognises that developed countries bear greater historical responsibility and capacity, so obligations differ.