Pratidin

UPSC current affairs quiz, 12 November 2026

30 Prelims-style questions on the day's news, in the formats UPSC uses (statement-based, How many, Statement-I and II), each with the answer and an explanation. Try each one before you open the answer.

Read 12 November 2026 first11 November 2026 quiz13 November 2026 quizTimed test in the app

Cabinet raises rabi P&K fertiliser subsidy 64% to ₹62,370 crore for 2026-27

  1. With reference to the Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) scheme in India, consider the following statements:
    1. It fixes the subsidy on the basis of nutrients such as nitrogen, phosphorus, potash and sulphur.
    2. It covers urea along with phosphatic and potassic fertilisers.
    3. The subsidy is paid directly into the bank accounts of farmers.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct: NBS sets a per-kg subsidy for N, P, K and S. Statement 2 is wrong: NBS covers P&K fertilisers such as DAP and NPKS grades, not urea. Statement 3 is wrong: the subsidy is released to fertiliser companies at the notified rates, not to farmers.

  2. Consider the following statements about the rabi 2026-27 NBS decision:
    1. The tentative outlay is about 64% higher than for rabi 2025-26.
    2. The subsidy rate for potash was raised compared with kharif 2026.
    3. The rates apply from 1 October 2026 to 31 March 2027.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is correct: ₹62,370.02 crore against ₹37,952.29 crore. Statement 2 is wrong: potash stayed at ₹2.38 per kg. Statement 3 is correct. So two statements are correct.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: The rabi 2026-27 NBS outlay was raised sharply over the previous rabi season.
    Statement-II: The Cabinet cited recent trends in international prices of urea, DAP, MOP and sulphur.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. The Cabinet linked the rationalisation of the P&K subsidy to international price trends for these inputs, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.

  4. Consider the following fertilisers:
    1. Di-ammonium phosphate (DAP)
    2. Muriate of potash (MOP)
    3. Urea
    4. NPK complex fertilisers
    How many of the above are covered by the Nutrient Based Subsidy scheme?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. DAP, MOP and NPK complexes are P&K fertilisers under NBS. Urea is outside NBS and has a government-controlled retail price. So three are covered.

  5. Under the rabi 2026-27 NBS rates, which nutrient carries the highest subsidy per kg?

    1. Phosphorus
    2. Nitrogen
    3. Sulphur
    4. Potash
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Nitrogen. Nitrogen gets ₹94.21 per kg, against ₹66.11 for phosphorus, ₹10.42 for sulphur and ₹2.38 for potash.

  6. Consider the following statements:
    1. Under NBS, the subsidy is transferred directly to farmers' bank accounts.
    2. The kharif 2026 P&K subsidy outlay approved in April 2026 was ₹41,534 crore.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2 only. Statement 1 is wrong: the subsidy is paid to fertiliser companies. Statement 2 is correct: the Cabinet approved ₹41,534 crore for kharif 2026 on 8 April 2026.

Centre bans export of lithium-ion battery 'black mass' to feed domestic recyclers

  1. 'Black mass', recently in the news, refers to:

    1. A residue of coal washeries used in brick making
    2. Powder obtained by shredding spent lithium-ion batteries, rich in metals such as cobalt and nickel
    3. Carbon black produced from waste tyres by pyrolysis
    4. Sludge from common effluent treatment plants used as fuel
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Powder obtained by shredding spent lithium-ion batteries, rich in metals such as cobalt and nickel. Black mass is the powder produced by shredding end-of-life lithium-ion batteries and battery manufacturing waste. It contains lithium, cobalt, nickel, manganese and graphite. DGFT prohibited its export on 10 November 2026.

  2. Consider the following statements about the November 2026 DGFT notification:
    1. It prohibits the export of all types of batteries from India.
    2. It covers unsorted battery waste that does not contain lead, cadmium or mercury.
    3. It was issued under the Foreign Trade (Development and Regulation) Act, 1992.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is wrong: it is not a blanket ban on batteries; it covers HS 85491400 waste and scrap identified as black mass. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct: Section 3 read with Section 5 of the 1992 Act. Two are correct.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: The Centre has prohibited the export of lithium-ion battery black mass.
    Statement-II: Domestic recycling capacity has been underused for lack of feedstock.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct, and the government's stated reasoning is that Indian recyclers lacked feedstock while black mass could be exported, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.

  4. Consider the following about the critical mineral recycling incentive scheme approved in September 2025:
    1. Its outlay is ₹1,500 crore.
    2. It runs from FY 2025-26 to FY 2030-31.
    3. It mainly supports units that only produce black mass.
    4. It targets at least 270 kilo tonnes a year of recycling capacity.
    How many of the above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: the scheme supports the value chain that actually extracts critical minerals, not units that only produce black mass. So three are correct.

  5. Hydrometallurgy, used to recover metals from black mass, involves:

    1. Smelting the material at very high temperatures
    2. Dissolving metals in aqueous chemical solutions and separating them
    3. Using bacteria to fix nitrogen in the material
    4. Burying the material in engineered landfills
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Dissolving metals in aqueous chemical solutions and separating them. Hydrometallurgy recovers metals by leaching them into solutions and separating them. High-temperature smelting is pyrometallurgy. The other options are unrelated.

  6. Consider the following statements:
    1. According to GTRI, India recorded no exports under HS 85491400 in 2025-26.
    2. The Battery Waste Management Rules, 2022 are based on extended producer responsibility.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct. GTRI's Ajay Srivastava noted zero exports under the line in 2025-26, and the 2022 rules place collection and recycling obligations on producers under EPR.

Editorial: Maharashtra's ordinance on nominated directors and the Gokul dairy mandate

  1. With reference to cooperative societies in India, consider the following statements:
    1. The right to form cooperative societies is part of Article 19(1)(c).
    2. Article 43B is a Directive Principle on the promotion of cooperative societies.
    3. After the Supreme Court's 2021 judgment, Part IXB of the Constitution continues to govern cooperatives operating within a single State.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. Statements 1 and 2 are correct: both were added by the 97th Amendment. Statement 3 is wrong: in Union of India v. Rajendra N. Shah (2021) the Court held Part IXB inoperative for State cooperatives because half the States had not ratified it; it survives for multi-State cooperatives.

  2. Consider the following statements about Maharashtra's 2026 cooperative ordinance:
    1. It allows the government to nominate five members to managing committees of eligible cooperatives.
    2. All five nominees have voting rights.
    3. Nominees can be elected chairman of the society.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Only one. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the officer nominee has no vote; only the four non-official experts vote. Statement 3 is wrong: none of the nominees can become an office-bearer. Only one is correct.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Part IXB of the Constitution does not apply to cooperative societies that operate within a single State.
    Statement-II: The 97th Amendment was not ratified by the Legislatures of at least half the States, though it affected a State List subject.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. In Rajendra N. Shah (2021) the Supreme Court held that Part IXB affected Entry 32 of the State List and needed ratification under Article 368(2); lacking it, Part IXB survives only for multi-State cooperatives. Statement-II explains Statement-I.

  4. Consider the following provisions:
    1. Article 19(1)(c)
    2. Article 43B
    3. Article 243ZJ
    4. Article 21A
    How many of the above were inserted or amended by the 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Article 19(1)(c) was amended to add cooperative societies, Article 43B was inserted, and Article 243ZJ is part of the new Part IXB. Article 21A (right to education) came from the 86th Amendment. So three.

  5. With reference to the ordinance-making power of a Governor, which one of the following is correct?

    1. It can be used even when both Houses of the State Legislature are in session
    2. An ordinance ceases to operate six weeks after the Legislature reassembles, or earlier if the Legislature disapproves it
    3. Ordinances are immune from judicial review
    4. A Governor can re-promulgate an ordinance any number of times without placing it before the Legislature
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) An ordinance ceases to operate six weeks after the Legislature reassembles, or earlier if the Legislature disapproves it. Under Article 213, an ordinance cannot be issued while the Legislature is in session (where there are two Houses, while both are sitting), and it lapses six weeks after reassembly, or earlier if disapproved. In Krishna Kumar Singh v. State of Bihar (2017) the Supreme Court held that ordinances are subject to judicial review and that re-promulgation without placing them before the Legislature is a fraud on the Constitution.

  6. Consider the following statements about Union of India v. Rajendra N. Shah (2021):
    1. It was decided by a three-judge Bench by a 2:1 majority.
    2. It struck down Article 19(1)(c)'s reference to cooperative societies.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct: Justices R.F. Nariman and B.R. Gavai formed the majority and Justice K.M. Joseph dissented in part. Statement 2 is wrong: Articles 19(1)(c) and 43B were not invalidated; only Part IXB was read down for State cooperatives.

India cuts visa categories from 13 to 9 and sub-categories from 49 to 23

  1. Under India's rationalised visa regime announced in November 2026, the 'V-1' visa refers to:

    1. A one-year medical visa for AYUSH treatment
    2. A 30-day multiple-entry Visitor visa covering tourism and short visits
    3. A long-term business visa for setting up industrial ventures
    4. A visa for students enrolled through the Study in India portal
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) A 30-day multiple-entry Visitor visa covering tourism and short visits. V-1 is the Visitor visa (formerly Tourist visa) valid for 30 days with multiple entries. AYUSH treatment is M-3, long-term licence-based business is B-1, and Study in India students get e-S1.

  2. Consider the following statements about India's rationalised visa regime:
    1. The main visa categories have been reduced to nine.
    2. The Tourist visa has been renamed the Visitor visa.
    3. Mountaineering is covered under the V-2 Visitor visa.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) All three. All three are correct: there are nine main categories, the Tourist visa is now the Visitor visa, and V-2 covers V-1 activities plus mountaineering.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: The government expects the visa rationalisation to boost medical value travel.
    Statement-II: Medical visas M-1 and M-3 are granted for one year with multiple entries by default.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct, and longer default validity with multiple entries for medical visas is one way the reform supports medical value travel and the 'Heal in India' vision. Statement-II explains Statement-I.

  4. Consider the following laws:
    1. Passport (Entry into India) Act, 1920
    2. Registration of Foreigners Act, 1939
    3. Foreigners Act, 1946
    4. Citizenship Act, 1955
    How many of the above were replaced by the Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. The 2025 Act replaced the 1920, 1939 and 1946 Acts and the Immigration (Carriers' Liability) Act, 2000. The Citizenship Act, 1955 remains. So three of the listed laws.

  5. Under the new regime, foreign technical staff working for Indian companies can get a Production Investment Business visa under which sub-category?

    1. B-1
    2. B-2
    3. V-2
    4. S-2
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) B-2. The Production Investment Business visa, earlier called e-B4, is now under B-2, the short-term contract-based business sub-category, through the e-Visa platform.

  6. Consider the following statements:
    1. The visa sub-categories were cut from 63 to 49 in the October 2025 round.
    2. e-Visas are processed through electronic travel authorisation under 23 sub-categories.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the release says e-Visas are processed under 13 sub-categories; 23 is the total number of sub-categories in the new regime.

Cabinet extends Mudra loan guarantee fund and Stand-Up India scheme to March 2031

  1. With reference to the Stand-Up India scheme, consider the following statements:
    1. It finances only enterprises in the manufacturing sector.
    2. It provides loans above ₹10 lakh and up to ₹1 crore to women, SC and ST entrepreneurs for greenfield enterprises.
    3. It has been continued up to 31 March 2031.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only. Statement 1 is wrong: manufacturing, services, trading and agri-allied activities are eligible. Statements 2 and 3 are correct as per the Cabinet decision of 11 November 2026.

  2. Consider the following statements about the Credit Guarantee Fund for Micro Units (CGFMU):
    1. It was launched in January 2016.
    2. It covers overdrafts of up to ₹10,000 in PMJDY accounts.
    3. It has been continued up to 31 March 2031.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) All three. All three are correct as per the Cabinet release of 11 November 2026.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Banks can extend collateral-free Mudra loans to micro enterprises.
    Statement-II: The Credit Guarantee Fund for Micro Units covers lending institutions against default risk on such loans.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. The guarantee from CGFMU, through NCGTC, is what lets lenders give PMMY loans without collateral, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.

  4. Consider the following PMMY categories and upper loan limits:
    1. Shishu: ₹50,000
    2. Kishore: ₹10 lakh
    3. Tarun: ₹5 lakh
    4. Tarun Plus: ₹20 lakh
    How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Shishu (up to ₹50,000) and Tarun Plus (up to ₹20 lakh) are correct. Kishore goes up to ₹5 lakh and Tarun up to ₹10 lakh, so pairs 2 and 3 are swapped. Two are correct.

  5. Under the continued Stand-Up India scheme, the credit guarantee covers what share of the loan amount?

    1. 50%
    2. 75%
    3. 85%
    4. 100%
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 85%. The guarantee covers 85% of the loan amount, at a standard fee of 0.50%. Loans themselves can cover up to 85% of project cost.

  6. Consider the following statements:
    1. Stand-Up India had ended in March 2025 before the November 2026 decision to continue it.
    2. The CGFMU guarantee fee for SHG loans was cut to 0.10% a year.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct: the scheme ended in March 2025, and the Finance Minister announced a revamp in March 2026. Statement 2 is wrong: SHG fees are unchanged at 0.25% in the first year and 0.50% after.