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UPSC current affairs quiz, 1 September 2026

30 Prelims-style questions on the day's news, in the formats UPSC uses (statement-based, How many, Statement-I and II), each with the answer and an explanation. Try each one before you open the answer.

Read 1 September 2026 first2 September 2026 quizTimed test in the app

GDP grows 7.8% in April-June 2026, beating the RBI's 7% projection

  1. With reference to India's national accounts, consider the following statements:
    1. GDP is obtained by adding product taxes to, and subtracting product subsidies from, Gross Value Added at basic prices.
    2. The current series of India's GDP estimates uses 2011-12 as the base year.
    3. If nominal GDP grows faster than real GDP, the implicit GDP deflator has risen.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 1 and 3 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only. Statement 1 is correct: GDP = GVA at basic prices + product taxes - product subsidies. Statement 2 is incorrect: the national accounts moved to the 2022-23 base year in 2026, replacing 2011-12. Statement 3 is correct: the deflator is nominal GDP divided by real GDP, so it rises when nominal grows faster than real (about 2.3% in Q1 2026-27).

  2. Consider the following statements about India's GDP estimate for April to June 2026:
    1. Real GDP grew faster than real GVA.
    2. Real Gross Fixed Capital Formation grew faster than real private final consumption expenditure.
    3. Agriculture and allied activities grew faster than in the same quarter of 2025-26.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Only one. Statement 1 is incorrect: real GDP grew 7.8% and real GVA 8.2%. Statement 2 is correct: real GFCF grew 11.9% against 7.1% for private consumption. Statement 3 is incorrect: agriculture and allied slowed to 3.6% from 4.4%. Only one is correct.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: In April to June 2026, India's nominal GDP grew faster than its real GDP.
    Statement-II: The implicit GDP deflator rose during that quarter compared with a year earlier.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. Nominal GDP grew 10.3% and real GDP 7.8%. Because the deflator is nominal GDP divided by real GDP, nominal growth exceeding real growth means the deflator rose (about 2.3%). Statement-II therefore explains Statement-I.

  4. Consider the following:
    1. Private final consumption expenditure
    2. Gross Fixed Capital Formation
    3. Net exports of goods and services
    4. Taxes on products
    How many of the above are components of GDP measured by the expenditure method?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Private consumption, GFCF and net exports are expenditure components (with government consumption and change in stocks). Taxes on products are used to move from GVA to GDP on the production side; they are not an expenditure component. So only three.

  5. With reference to the revision of India's GDP base year to 2022-23, which of the following statements is/are correct?
    1. Growth rates of earlier years are recomputed on the new base.
    2. On the new series, growth in April to June 2025 is shown as 6.9%.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct. A base-year change recomputes the back series, which is why the April to June 2025 quarter is now shown at 6.9% and 2025-26 growth was revised to 7.8%.

  6. Consider the following statements:
    1. Gross Fixed Capital Formation includes spending on machinery and equipment.
    2. Gross Fixed Capital Formation includes only investment by the government.
    3. The share of GFCF in India's nominal GDP rose to 34.3% in April to June 2026.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is correct: GFCF covers fixed assets such as buildings, infrastructure, machinery and equipment. Statement 2 is incorrect: it covers investment by government, firms and households. Statement 3 is correct: the share rose to 34.3% from 31.4%. Two are correct.

Hague court says the Indus Waters Treaty is fully in force; India rejects the award

  1. With reference to the Indus Waters Treaty, 1960, consider the following statements:
    1. The waters of the Ravi, Beas and Sutlej are available for India's unrestricted use.
    2. India may build run-of-the-river hydroelectric projects on the Western Rivers, subject to design conditions.
    3. The World Bank is a signatory to the treaty.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) All three. All three are correct. The Eastern Rivers (Ravi, Beas, Sutlej) are for India's unrestricted use. On the Western Rivers (Indus, Jhelum, Chenab) India may generate run-of-the-river hydropower within the design limits in the annexures. The World Bank signed the treaty for specified purposes and has a role in appointing Neutral Experts and Courts of Arbitration.

  2. Consider the following statements about the Court of Arbitration's decisions of 31 August 2026:
    1. The court held that India's April 2025 decision to hold the treaty in abeyance was not justified.
    2. The court ordered India to dismantle the Ratle Hydro-Electric Plant.
    3. India took part in the proceedings through written submissions.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Only one. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect: the interim order only bars concreting the dam wall and power intake above specified levels until 90 days after the Neutral Expert's decision. Statement 3 is incorrect: India did not respond; the court considered its public statements. Only one is correct.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: The Permanent Court of Arbitration is described as a standing court with a fixed bench of permanent judges.
    Statement-II: The Permanent Court of Arbitration provides registry support to tribunals constituted for particular cases.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct. Statement-I is incorrect: despite its name, the PCA has no permanent bench; tribunals are formed case by case. Statement-II is correct: the PCA provides registry and secretariat support to such tribunals, as it does for the Indus Court of Arbitration.

  4. Consider the following rivers:
    1. Ravi
    2. Chenab
    3. Beas
    4. Jhelum
    How many of the above are Western Rivers under the Indus Waters Treaty?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. The Western Rivers are the Indus, Jhelum and Chenab. Of the four listed, only the Chenab and the Jhelum are Western Rivers; the Ravi and Beas are Eastern Rivers. So only two.

  5. With reference to dispute settlement under the Indus Waters Treaty, which of the following statements is/are correct?
    1. A technical 'difference' can be referred to a Neutral Expert.
    2. A Court of Arbitration can be constituted only with the approval of the Permanent Indus Commission.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct: Article IX sends technical differences to a Neutral Expert. Statement 2 is incorrect: a Court of Arbitration can be set up on a request by a party to resolve a dispute; the Commission's approval is not required, which is how Pakistan's request led to the present court.

  6. Consider the following statements:
    1. The Kishenganga project is on a tributary of the Jhelum.
    2. The Ratle project is on the Chenab.
    3. Both Kishenganga and Ratle are storage projects with large reservoirs permitted under the treaty.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct: Kishenganga (330 MW) is on the Kishanganga, a Jhelum tributary, and Ratle (850 MW) is on the Chenab. Statement 3 is incorrect: both are run-of-the-river projects, and pondage limits are exactly what Pakistan disputes. Two are correct.

India records its hottest August since 1901; IMD forecasts below-normal September rain

  1. With reference to IMD's outlook for September 2026, consider the following statements:
    1. All-India rainfall is forecast to be below 91% of the Long Period Average.
    2. The Long Period Average used is the mean rainfall over 1951 to 2000.
    3. The Indian Ocean Dipole was in a strong positive phase at the time of the forecast.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct: IMD forecast below-normal rain, under 91% of the LPA of 167.9 mm. Statement 2 is incorrect: the LPA is based on 1971 to 2020. Statement 3 is incorrect: the IOD was neutral; only some international models suggested a possible positive phase from September.

  2. Consider the following statements about August 2026 as reported by IMD:
    1. The all-India mean temperature was the highest for August since 1901.
    2. The all-India average minimum temperature was the highest for August since 1901.
    3. August rainfall was above normal in the country as a whole.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct: the mean (28.01°C) and minimum (24.36°C) were both the highest for August since 1901. Statement 3 is incorrect: rainfall was 213.3 mm, 16.3% below normal. Two are correct.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: El Niño years tend to be associated with below-normal south-west monsoon rainfall in India.
    Statement-II: During El Niño, the sinking branch of the tropical circulation tends to settle over the Indian region.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I. When the central and eastern Pacific warm, the zone of rising air shifts east and descending air over the Indian region suppresses cloud and rain.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    1. A positive Indian Ocean Dipole means the western Indian Ocean is warmer than the eastern Indian Ocean.
    2. A positive Indian Ocean Dipole can partly offset the drying effect of El Niño on the Indian monsoon.
    3. La Niña is the warm phase of the El Niño Southern Oscillation.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is correct: that is the definition of a positive IOD. Statement 2 is correct: a positive IOD tends to favour Indian rainfall. Statement 3 is incorrect: La Niña is the cool phase; El Niño is the warm phase. Two are correct.

  5. In IMD's monthly rainfall forecasts, 'below normal' rainfall refers to rainfall that is

    1. less than 91% of the Long Period Average
    2. less than 96% of the Long Period Average
    3. more than 20% below the previous year's rainfall
    4. less than 75% of the Long Period Average
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) less than 91% of the Long Period Average. For a monthly forecast such as September's, IMD calls rainfall below normal if it is under 91% of the LPA; 91% to 109% is normal and above 109% is above normal.

  6. Consider the following regions:
    1. Parts of northwest India
    2. Parts of northeast India
    3. Parts of east-central India
    4. Parts of southeast peninsular India
    How many of the above did IMD name as areas where normal or above-normal rainfall was possible in September 2026?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) All four. IMD said parts of northwest, northeast, east and east-central India and southeast peninsular India may get normal to above-normal rain, even though the all-India forecast is below normal. All four.

Op-ed: Is the right to work fading under the new rural jobs law?

  1. Consider the following statements about the Viksit Bharat Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) Act, 2025:
    1. It guarantees 125 days of wage employment in a financial year to rural households whose adults volunteer for unskilled manual work.
    2. The cost is shared 60:40 between the Centre and most States.
    3. States may notify a period of up to 60 days a year during peak agricultural seasons when work is paused.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) All three. All three are correct. The Act guarantees 125 days, shares costs 60:40 with most States (90:10 for north-eastern and Himalayan States and UTs with legislature, 100% central for UTs without legislature), and lets States notify up to 60 days of pause in peak sowing and harvesting seasons.

  2. Consider the following statements:
    1. The right to work is a Fundamental Right under Part III of the Constitution.
    2. Article 41 makes the State's duty to secure the right to work subject to its economic capacity and development.
    3. Directive Principles are enforceable by the Supreme Court under Article 32.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Only one. Statement 1 is incorrect: the right to work is in Article 41, a Directive Principle in Part IV. Statement 2 is correct: Article 41 applies 'within the limits of its economic capacity and development'. Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 37 says Directive Principles are not enforceable by any court. Only one is correct.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Under MGNREGA, the Central Government bore the full cost of wages for unskilled work.
    Statement-II: MGNREGA placed the right to work among the Fundamental Rights.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. Statement-I is correct: under MGNREGA the Centre paid the entire wage bill for unskilled work. Statement-II is incorrect: MGNREGA is an ordinary law that gave a statutory right to demand work; it did not amend Part III.

  4. Consider the following pairs:
    1. Olga Tellis case : right to livelihood as part of Article 21
    2. Sanjit Roy case : payment below minimum wage as forced labour under Article 23
    3. Article 37 : Directive Principles are fundamental in the governance of the country
    4. Article 41 : right to work, to education and to public assistance in certain cases
    How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) All four. All four are correct. Olga Tellis (1985) read livelihood into Article 21; Sanjit Roy (1983) treated below-minimum wages on relief works as forced labour under Article 23; Article 37 declares Directive Principles fundamental in governance though non-justiciable; Article 41 covers the right to work, education and public assistance.

  5. Under the VB-G RAM G Act, 2025, the Centre-State cost-sharing ratio for north-eastern and Himalayan States is

    1. 60:40
    2. 75:25
    3. 90:10
    4. 100:0
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 90:10. North-eastern and Himalayan States and UTs with legislature share costs 90:10 with the Centre. Most other States share 60:40, and UTs without legislature are fully funded by the Centre.

  6. With reference to the Supreme Court hearing of 21 August 2026 on rural employment wages, which of the following statements is/are correct?
    1. The bench observed that the Constitution does not recognise the right to work as a fundamental right.
    2. The bench struck down the VB-G RAM G Act, 2025.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect: the bench did not rule on the new Act; it asked the petitioners to file a fresh petition addressing the VB-G RAM G Act.

Op-ed: Falling fertility, delimitation and the politics of population

  1. With reference to the delimitation of constituencies in India, consider the following statements:
    1. The 42nd Amendment froze the allocation of Lok Sabha seats among States on the basis of the 1971 census.
    2. The 84th Amendment extended this freeze until the first census taken after 2026.
    3. The 87th Amendment increased the number of Lok Sabha seats on the basis of the 2001 census.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect: the 87th Amendment (2003) allowed constituency boundaries to be readjusted on the basis of the 2001 census; it did not change the number of seats, which remains based on the 1971 census.

  2. Consider the following statements based on National Family Health Survey data:
    1. India's total fertility rate in NFHS-5 (2019-21) was below the replacement level.
    2. Between NFHS-1 and NFHS-5, fertility among Muslims fell by more than two children per woman.
    3. Fertility among Hindus rose between NFHS-1 and NFHS-5.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is correct: TFR was 2.0, below about 2.1. Statement 2 is correct: it fell from 4.41 to 2.36, a drop of 2.05. Statement 3 is incorrect: Hindu fertility fell from 3.3 to 1.94. Two are correct.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Inter-State allocation of Lok Sabha seats is still based on the 1971 census.
    Statement-II: The freeze on allocation was intended to avoid penalising States that controlled population growth.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I. The 42nd and 84th Amendments kept the 1971-based allocation so that States that implemented population control would not lose seats.

  4. Consider the following:
    1. Article 81
    2. Article 82
    3. Article 170
    4. Article 41
    How many of the above deal with the composition of legislatures or readjustment after each census?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Article 81 covers the composition of the Lok Sabha, Article 82 readjustment after each census, and Article 170 the composition of State Assemblies including readjustment. Article 41 is a Directive Principle on the right to work, education and public assistance. So only three.

  5. In the demographic transition, which of the following usually happens first?

    1. Birth rates fall because of urbanisation
    2. Death rates fall because of better health and food
    3. The share of the elderly rises sharply
    4. Population begins to shrink
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Death rates fall because of better health and food. Death rates usually fall first as health, sanitation and food improve, causing rapid population growth; birth rates fall later; ageing and possible decline come at the end.

  6. Consider the following statements:
    1. A total fertility rate of about 2.1 is called replacement level.
    2. A country's population starts falling in the same year its total fertility rate drops below replacement.
    3. Countries such as South Korea have fertility below one child per woman.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect: because of population momentum, a population keeps growing for decades after TFR falls below replacement, as the large young cohorts have children. Statement 3 is correct: South Korea's TFR is below one. Two are correct.