Pratidin

UPSC current affairs quiz, 2 September 2026

36 Prelims-style questions on the day's news, in the formats UPSC uses (statement-based, How many, Statement-I and II), each with the answer and an explanation. Try each one before you open the answer.

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Supreme Court uses Article 142 to quash FIRs against NEET-UG protesters

  1. With reference to Article 142 of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
    1. It empowers both the Supreme Court and the High Courts to pass orders for doing complete justice.
    2. A decree or order passed under it is enforceable throughout the territory of India.
    3. The Supreme Court has held that the power cannot be used to supplant substantive law.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only. Statement 1 is wrong: Article 142 is a power of the Supreme Court alone. Statement 2 is correct: clause (1) makes such decrees and orders enforceable throughout India. Statement 3 is correct: in Supreme Court Bar Association v. Union of India (1998), the Court said the power supplements the law and cannot supplant substantive law.

  2. Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court's order of 1 September 2026 on the NEET-UG protests:
    1. It quashed FIRs only in the States that had applied to the Court.
    2. It barred fresh FIRs over the protests held between 20 and 25 July 2026.
    3. The Court said its directions would not be a binding precedent.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is wrong: the applications came from the Delhi Police and four States, but the Court extended the relief to every State and Union Territory. Statement 2 is correct: no fresh FIRs may be registered over those protests. Statement 3 is correct: the Bench said its directions arose from peculiar facts and are not a precedent. So two are correct.

  3. With reference to Article 142 of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
    1. It empowers the Supreme Court to pass orders for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it.
    2. High Courts can exercise the same power under Article 226.
    3. An order under it is enforceable throughout the territory of India.
    4. It includes power to investigate or punish any contempt of the Supreme Court, subject to law made by Parliament.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Statement 1 is correct: this is clause (1). Statement 2 is wrong: Article 226 gives High Courts writ jurisdiction, not a 'complete justice' power. Statement 3 is correct: clause (1) makes such orders enforceable across India. Statement 4 is correct: clause (2) covers contempt, subject to Parliament's law. So three are correct.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: The Supreme Court closed FIRs against NEET-UG protesters in every State and Union Territory through a single order.
    Statement-II: A decree or order made under Article 142 is enforceable throughout the territory of India.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Statement-I is correct: the 1 September 2026 order extended relief to all States and UTs. Statement-II is correct: Article 142(1) makes such orders enforceable throughout India. Statement-II explains how one order could reach cases in every State.

  5. Under which provision can a High Court now quash an FIR using its inherent power?

    1. Section 482 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
    2. Section 528 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
    3. Section 163 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
    4. Section 7 of the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Section 528 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023. Section 528 of the BNSS carries forward the inherent power that was in Section 482 of the CrPC. Section 163 of the BNSS is the prohibitory-order power (earlier Section 144 CrPC). Section 7 of the PCR Act deals with untouchability offences.

  6. Consider the following statements about the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024:
    1. It applies to examinations conducted by the National Testing Agency.
    2. Offences under it are cognisable, non-bailable and non-compoundable.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Statement 1 is correct: the NTA is among the bodies covered, along with UPSC, SSC, the RRBs, IBPS and central ministries. Statement 2 is correct: all offences under the Act are cognisable, non-bailable and non-compoundable.

At the SCO summit in Bishkek, Modi calls for dismantling the terror ecosystem

  1. Consider the following countries:
    1. Belarus
    2. Iran
    3. Turkey
    4. Mongolia
    How many of the above are full members of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Belarus (2024) and Iran (2023) are full members. Mongolia is an observer, and Turkey is a dialogue partner. So only two are full members.

  2. Consider the following statements about the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation:
    1. Its Secretariat is in Beijing.
    2. Its Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure is headquartered in Tashkent.
    3. India became a full member at the same summit as Iran.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is wrong: India (with Pakistan) joined in 2017, while Iran joined in 2023. So two are correct.

  3. Consider the following countries:
    1. India
    2. Russia
    3. Pakistan
    4. Iran
    How many of the above reaffirmed support for the Belt and Road Initiative in the Bishkek Declaration (2026)?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Russia, Pakistan and Iran are among the eight members that reaffirmed support for the BRI. India did not, because of its objection to CPEC through Pakistan-occupied Kashmir. So three.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: India did not join the members that reaffirmed support for the Belt and Road Initiative in the Bishkek Declaration.
    Statement-II: The China-Pakistan Economic Corridor, a BRI project, passes through Pakistan-occupied Kashmir, which India considers its territory.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both statements are correct. India's refusal to endorse the BRI rests on its sovereignty objection to CPEC, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.

  5. Which one of the following countries chairs the SCO for 2026-27 and will host its next summit?

    1. India
    2. Tajikistan
    3. Kazakhstan
    4. Pakistan
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) Pakistan. Kyrgyzstan handed the rotating chair to Pakistan at the Bishkek summit; Pakistan will host the 2027 summit.

  6. Consider the following statements:
    1. The SCO grew out of the 'Shanghai Five' grouping formed in 1996.
    2. Mongolia is a full member of the SCO.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct: the Shanghai Five of 1996 became the SCO in 2001 with Uzbekistan. Statement 2 is wrong: Mongolia is an observer.

India's current account deficit widens to $4.2 billion in April-June 2026

  1. With reference to India's balance of payments, which one of the following is recorded in the capital and financial account rather than the current account?

    1. Remittances from Indians working abroad
    2. Interest paid on external debt
    3. Net foreign portfolio investment
    4. Export of software services
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Net foreign portfolio investment. Remittances are secondary income, interest payments are primary income, and software exports are services, all in the current account. Portfolio investment is a financial flow recorded in the capital and financial account.

  2. Consider the following items:
    1. Balance of trade in goods
    2. Net services receipts
    3. Remittances from Indians working abroad
    4. Foreign portfolio investment
    How many of the above are part of the current account of India's balance of payments?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Goods trade, services and remittances (secondary income) are all in the current account. Foreign portfolio investment belongs to the capital and financial account. So three.

  3. Consider the following statements about India's balance of payments in April-June 2026:
    1. The current account deficit was 0.5% of GDP.
    2. Foreign portfolio investors made net inflows.
    3. The overall balance of payments was in surplus.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Only one. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: there was a net FPI outflow of $9.6 billion. Statement 3 is wrong: the BoP showed an $8.1 billion deficit. So only one.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: India's foreign exchange reserves fell in April-June 2026 even on a balance of payments basis.
    Statement-II: Both the current account and the capital account recorded net outflows in that quarter.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. A $4.2 billion current account deficit plus a $3.9 billion net capital outflow left an $8.1 billion gap that was met from reserves, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.

  5. Which one of the following is NOT a component of India's foreign exchange reserves?

    1. Foreign currency assets
    2. Gold
    3. Special Drawing Rights
    4. External commercial borrowings
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) External commercial borrowings. Reserves consist of foreign currency assets, gold, SDRs and the reserve tranche position with the IMF. External commercial borrowings are loans taken by Indian entities and are recorded in the capital account.

  6. Consider the following statements:
    1. India's current account deficit reached 4.8% of GDP in 2012-13.
    2. Under the classification recommended by the Arvind Mayaram committee, a foreign investment of 10% or more of a listed company's equity is treated as FDI.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct. The 2012-13 CAD of 4.8% of GDP is India's highest in recent decades, and the 10% threshold separates FDI from FPI.

Why no 'distinguished jurist' has ever been appointed to the Supreme Court

  1. Under Article 124(3) of the Constitution of India, a citizen of India is qualified for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court if he or she
    1. has been a judge of a High Court for at least five years
    2. has been an advocate of a High Court for at least ten years
    3. is, in the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3. All three are qualifying routes under Article 124(3)(a), (b) and (c). The third, the distinguished jurist route, has never been used, but it is valid in law.

  2. Consider the following statements about Article 124(3):
    1. A person must be a citizen of India to be appointed a Supreme Court judge.
    2. Ten years as an advocate of a High Court is one of the qualifying routes.
    3. At least one distinguished jurist has been appointed under clause (c).
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is wrong: no appointment has ever been made under clause (c). So two are correct.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    1. The collegium system was created by the Second Judges case in 1993.
    2. The Third Judges case (1998) arose from a Presidential reference under Article 143.
    3. The 99th Constitutional Amendment and the NJAC Act were struck down in 2015.
    4. The collegium for Supreme Court appointments consists of the Chief Justice of India and the two senior-most judges.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Statement 4 is wrong: the Third Judges case fixed the collegium as the Chief Justice and the four senior-most judges. So three.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: At present, the Constitution does not allow a distinguished jurist to be appointed directly as a High Court judge.
    Statement-II: The 44th Amendment (1978) removed the distinguished jurist clause that the 42nd Amendment had added to Article 217.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. Article 217(2) now has only the judicial-office and advocate routes because the 44th Amendment deleted the jurist clause, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.

  5. Up to what age does a judge of the Supreme Court of India hold office?

    1. 60 years
    2. 62 years
    3. 68 years
    4. 65 years
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) 65 years. Article 124(2) provides that a Supreme Court judge holds office until the age of 65. High Court judges retire at 62.

  6. Consider the following statements:
    1. A Supreme Court judge can be removed only by an order of the President passed after an address by each House of Parliament supported by a special majority.
    2. The Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 regulates the procedure for investigating the charges against a judge.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct. Article 124(4) requires an address by each House supported by a majority of total membership and two-thirds of members present and voting; Article 124(5) lets Parliament regulate the procedure, which it did through the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.

Is 'purifying' a venue after a Dalit leader's rally untouchability under Article 17?

  1. Consider the following statements:
    1. The Constitution of India defines 'untouchability' in Article 17.
    2. Article 17 can be enforced against private individuals as well as the State.
    3. The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 was earlier called the Untouchability (Offences) Act.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only. Statement 1 is wrong: Article 17 does not define untouchability. Statement 2 is correct: the Supreme Court held in PUDR v. Union of India (1982) that Article 17 applies against private persons. Statement 3 is correct: the Act was renamed in 1976.

  2. Consider the following statements about Article 17 of the Constitution of India:
    1. It forbids the practice of untouchability in any form.
    2. It defines untouchability as the denial of entry to places of worship.
    3. It can be enforced against private individuals.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: Article 17 does not define untouchability at all. Statement 3 is correct, as held in PUDR v. Union of India (1982). So two are correct.

  3. Consider the following pairs:
    1. Protection of Civil Rights Act : 1955
    2. SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act : 1989
    3. Mahad Satyagraha : 1927
    4. Sukanya Shantha v. Union of India : 2020
    How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Pairs 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Pair 4 is wrong: Sukanya Shantha was decided on 3 October 2024; Hitesh Verma is the 2020 case. So three.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Not every insult to a member of a Scheduled Caste is an offence under Section 3(1)(r) of the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989.
    Statement-II: In Hitesh Verma v. State of Uttarakhand (2020), the Supreme Court held that the insult must be linked to the victim's caste.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. The requirement of a caste link laid down in Hitesh Verma is the reason not every insult qualifies, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.

  5. The Untouchability (Offences) Act, 1955 was renamed the Protection of Civil Rights Act by an amendment in

    1. 1965
    2. 1972
    3. 1989
    4. 1976
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) 1976. The amending Act of 1976, in force from 19 November 1976, renamed and strengthened the law. The Atrocities Act came separately in 1989.

  6. Consider the following statements about the Mahad Satyagraha:
    1. It was led by B.R. Ambedkar in 1927 to assert the right of Dalits to use the Chavdar tank.
    2. After it, caste Hindus performed a 'purification' of the tank.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct. Ambedkar led the satyagraha on 20 March 1927, and caste Hindus then 'purified' the tank, treating Dalit contact as pollution.

Delhi HC: return from maternity leave must restore role, not just pay and title

  1. Which Article of the Constitution of India directs the State to make provision for securing just and humane conditions of work and for maternity relief?

    1. Article 39A
    2. Article 41
    3. Article 42
    4. Article 43
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Article 42. Article 42 covers just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief. Article 39A deals with equal justice and free legal aid, Article 41 with the right to work, education and public assistance, and Article 43 with a living wage for workers.

  2. Consider the following statements about the Delhi High Court's judgment of 31 August 2026 on maternity leave:
    1. It held that retaining an employee's designation and pay is enough to show she has been restored after maternity leave.
    2. It awarded compensation of ₹10 lakh to the petitioner.
    3. It directed the Union government to frame rules within six months on protecting women's roles after maternity leave.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. 1 is incorrect: the Court said retaining designation and pay is 'necessary but not by itself sufficient'. 2 is correct: ₹10 lakh compensation plus ₹1.5 lakh costs. 3 is correct: the Union must frame rules or schemes within six months. So two statements are correct.

  3. Consider the following statements about maternity benefits in India:
    1. Paid maternity leave can be up to 26 weeks.
    2. Not more than eight weeks of that leave may precede the expected date of delivery.
    3. A crèche is required in establishments with 50 or more employees.
    4. The entitlement is the same regardless of the number of surviving children.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. 1, 2 and 3 are correct, as provided after the 2017 amendment and carried into the Code on Social Security. 4 is incorrect: a woman with two or more surviving children gets 12 weeks. So three statements are correct.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: A law giving special maternity benefits to women employees does not violate the constitutional bar on discrimination on grounds of sex.
    Statement-II: Article 15(3) permits the State to make any special provision for women and children.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Statement-I is correct: maternity benefit laws are valid. Statement-II is correct and explains Statement-I: Article 15(3) expressly allows special provisions for women, so such laws are not discrimination under Article 15(1).

  5. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
    1. Article 42 of the Constitution is a Fundamental Right that a woman can enforce directly in court.
    2. Section 12 of the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 bars an employer from varying a woman's conditions of service to her disadvantage during her maternity absence.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2 only. 1 is incorrect: Article 42 is a Directive Principle in Part IV and is not enforceable by any court (Article 37), though courts use it to interpret laws. 2 is correct: this is the protection the Delhi High Court relied on.

  6. The Code on Social Security, 2020, which now carries maternity benefit provisions, came into force on:

    1. 1 April 2021
    2. 21 November 2025
    3. 1 January 2026
    4. 31 August 2026
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 21 November 2025. The four labour codes, including the Code on Social Security, 2020, came into force on 21 November 2025. 31 August 2026 is the date of the Delhi High Court judgment.