Pratidin

UPSC current affairs quiz, 26 September 2026

30 Prelims-style questions on the day's news, in the formats UPSC uses (statement-based, How many, Statement-I and II), each with the answer and an explanation. Try each one before you open the answer.

Read 26 September 2026 first25 September 2026 quiz27 September 2026 quizTimed test in the app

AFSPA extended in parts of Manipur, Nagaland and Arunachal for six more months

  1. Consider the following statements about the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958:
    1. Only the Central Government can declare an area 'disturbed' under the Act.
    2. Prosecution of armed forces personnel for acts done under the Act requires the prior sanction of the Central Government.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2 only. Section 3 also allows the Governor of a State or the Administrator of a Union Territory to declare a disturbed area, so statement 1 is wrong. Section 6 bars prosecution without Central sanction, so statement 2 is right.

  2. Consider the following statements:
    1. The current AFSPA extension in Manipur covers the entire State without exception.
    2. The extension in Arunachal Pradesh covers Tirap, Changlang and Longding districts.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2 only. Manipur excludes 13 police stations in five valley districts, so 1 is wrong. Statement 2 is correct.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    1. In Naga People's Movement of Human Rights v. Union of India (1997), the Supreme Court struck down AFSPA.
    2. The Jeevan Reddy Committee (2004) recommended the repeal of AFSPA.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2 only. The 1997 judgment upheld the Act while requiring periodic review. The Jeevan Reddy Committee did recommend repeal.

  4. In which year was the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act enacted?

    1. 1947
    2. 1958
    3. 1972
    4. 1990
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 1958. Parliament passed AFSPA in 1958.

  5. From which of these States has AFSPA already been withdrawn?

    1. Manipur
    2. Nagaland
    3. Tripura
    4. Arunachal Pradesh
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Tripura. AFSPA no longer applies in Tripura, Meghalaya or Mizoram; it continues in parts of the other three.

  6. When did ethnic violence break out in Manipur, leading to a partial reversal of AFSPA withdrawals?

    1. 3 May 2023
    2. 15 August 2022
    3. 1 April 2022
    4. 14 November 2024
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 3 May 2023. Violence began on 3 May 2023; AFSPA was reimposed in six police stations across five districts on 14 November 2024.

Census 2027: no decision yet on how open-field caste entries will be sorted

  1. Consider the following statements about Census 2027:
    1. Its reference date is 1 March 2027 for all States and Union Territories.
    2. Respondents who are not SC or ST can write their caste in an open field.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2 only. Snow-bound areas of Ladakh, Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand have a reference date of 1 October 2026, so statement 1 is wrong. Statement 2 describes the open-column method.

  2. Consider the following statements:
    1. Census 2027 is the 16th Census of India and the eighth since Independence.
    2. The caste data of SECC 2011 was released in full in 2015.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. Census 2027 is the 16th Census and eighth since Independence. SECC 2011 caste data was never released.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    1. Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes have been enumerated in every Census since 1951.
    2. 'Census' is listed in the State List of the Seventh Schedule.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. SCs and STs have always been counted. Census is Entry 69 of the Union List, not the State List.

  4. Which body approved the inclusion of caste enumeration in the Census on 30 April 2025?

    1. NITI Aayog
    2. Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs
    3. Election Commission of India
    4. National Commission for Backward Classes
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs. The CCPA took the decision.

  5. Which caste survey used a fixed list of castes rather than an open field?

    1. SECC 2011
    2. Bihar caste survey 2022-23
    3. Census 1931
    4. Census 2027 pre-test
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Bihar caste survey 2022-23. Bihar used a fixed list; the Census 2027 pre-test used an open field.

  6. Which of these areas has a Census reference date of 1 October 2026?

    1. Goa
    2. Ladakh
    3. Kerala
    4. Assam
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Ladakh. Snow-bound areas of Ladakh, Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand use 1 October 2026.

Centre and banks to settle UPI subsidy once merchant charges begin

  1. Under the UPI charge framework effective 15 October 2026, which one of the following payments attracts the 0.4% merchant discount rate?

    1. A ₹1,500 payment to a large supermarket
    2. A ₹5,000 transfer to a friend
    3. A ₹5,000 payment to a large electronics store
    4. A ₹5,000 payment to a vendor who receives ₹60,000 a month through UPI
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) A ₹5,000 payment to a large electronics store. MDR applies only to person-to-merchant payments above ₹2,000. Payments up to ₹2,000, person-to-person transfers and merchants receiving up to ₹1 lakh a month are exempt.

  2. Consider the following statements:
    1. From 15 October 2026, person-to-person UPI transfers above ₹2,000 attract a 0.4% charge.
    2. GST paid by a merchant on MDR can be claimed as input tax credit.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2 only. P2P transfers remain free at any amount. NPCI has said GST on MDR can be offset as input tax credit.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    1. The Union Budget 2026-27 set aside ₹2,000 crore for promoting low-value UPI and RuPay transactions.
    2. Government incentive payouts for UPI and RuPay peaked in 2021-22.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. The peak was ₹3,631 crore in 2023-24, not 2021-22.

  4. What is the maximum MDR a merchant pays on a single UPI payment under the new framework?

    1. ₹100
    2. ₹200
    3. ₹300
    4. ₹500
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) ₹300. The 0.4% rate is capped at ₹300.

  5. Which organisation operates UPI?

    1. Reserve Bank of India
    2. National Payments Corporation of India
    3. State Bank of India
    4. Indian Banks' Association
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) National Payments Corporation of India. NPCI, promoted by the RBI and the IBA, operates UPI, RuPay and BHIM.

  6. Under the 2024-25 incentive scheme, what incentive was paid on eligible small-merchant BHIM-UPI payments up to ₹2,000?

    1. 0.05%
    2. 0.15%
    3. 0.4%
    4. 1%
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 0.15%. The Cabinet approved a 0.15% incentive with a ₹1,500 crore outlay.

Should India review its nuclear doctrine without changing its core?

  1. Consider the following statements about India's nuclear doctrine of 2003:
    1. It rules out the use of nuclear weapons in response to a chemical or biological attack.
    2. Only the civilian political leadership, through the Nuclear Command Authority, can authorise nuclear retaliation.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2 only. The doctrine keeps the option of nuclear retaliation against a major biological or chemical attack, so statement 1 is wrong. Statement 2 is a core element of the doctrine.

  2. Consider the following statements:
    1. India's nuclear doctrine commits it not to use nuclear weapons against non-nuclear weapon states.
    2. The Executive Council of the Nuclear Command Authority is the sole body that can authorise the use of nuclear weapons.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. Non-use against non-nuclear states is part of the doctrine. Only the Political Council, chaired by the Prime Minister, can authorise use.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    1. The Draft Nuclear Doctrine of 1999 was prepared by the National Security Advisory Board.
    2. India's nuclear doctrine was operationalised before the Pokhran-II tests.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. The NSAB prepared the 1999 draft. The doctrine was operationalised in 2003, after the 1998 tests.

  4. Which of the following is NOT an element of India's 2003 nuclear doctrine?

    1. Credible minimum deterrence
    2. No First Use
    3. Launch on warning
    4. Civilian control through the Nuclear Command Authority
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Launch on warning. Launch on warning is not part of the doctrine, which is based on retaliation.

  5. Which conflict is cited as showing that conventional war is possible under a nuclear shadow?

    1. 1971 war
    2. 1999 Kargil conflict
    3. 1962 war
    4. 1965 war
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 1999 Kargil conflict. Kargil took place a year after both India and Pakistan tested nuclear weapons.

  6. Which leg of a nuclear triad is generally considered the most survivable?

    1. Land-based missiles
    2. Bomber aircraft
    3. Submarine-launched missiles
    4. Artillery shells
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Submarine-launched missiles. Submarines at sea are hard to locate and destroy in a first strike.

Expert panel backs green clearance for the Subansiri Upper hydro project

  1. Consider the following statements:
    1. Environmental clearance and forest clearance for a project are granted under the same law.
    2. A recommendation by an Expert Appraisal Committee is by itself the final environmental clearance.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2. Environmental clearance flows from the EIA Notification, 2006 under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, while forest clearance is under the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980. The EAC only recommends; the Ministry grants clearance.

  2. Consider the following statements:
    1. The Subansiri is a tributary of the Brahmaputra.
    2. Compensatory afforestation for the Subansiri Upper project is planned within Arunachal Pradesh.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. The afforestation is planned on degraded land in Madhya Pradesh, not Arunachal.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    1. Expert Appraisal Committees appraise Category A projects under the EIA Notification, 2006.
    2. The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act was enacted in 2016.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both statements are correct.

  4. Which of the following is the developer of both the Subansiri Lower and Subansiri Upper projects?

    1. NTPC
    2. NHPC
    3. NEEPCO
    4. SJVN
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) NHPC. NHPC is developing both projects.

  5. In which district of Arunachal Pradesh is the Subansiri Upper project located?

    1. Tawang
    2. Upper Subansiri
    3. Changlang
    4. Lower Dibang Valley
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Upper Subansiri. It is near Menga, about 20 km from Daporijo, in Upper Subansiri district.

  6. The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 was renamed in 2023 as the:

    1. Van (Sanrakshan Evam Samvardhan) Adhiniyam, 1980
    2. Van Adhikar Adhiniyam, 2023
    3. Paryavaran Sanrakshan Adhiniyam, 2023
    4. Jaiv Vividhata Adhiniyam, 1980
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Van (Sanrakshan Evam Samvardhan) Adhiniyam, 1980. The 2023 amendment renamed it the Van (Sanrakshan Evam Samvardhan) Adhiniyam, 1980.