Pratidin

UPSC current affairs quiz, 27 September 2026

30 Prelims-style questions on the day's news, in the formats UPSC uses (statement-based, How many, Statement-I and II), each with the answer and an explanation. Try each one before you open the answer.

Read 27 September 2026 first26 September 2026 quiz28 September 2026 quizTimed test in the app

Justice Nagarathna: family disputes need mediation and adjudication working together

  1. Consider the following statements:
    1. Under the Family Courts Act, 1984, a family court must first make efforts to bring about a settlement between the parties.
    2. The Mediation Act, 2023 provides for pre-litigation mediation.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Section 9 of the Family Courts Act places a duty on the court to attempt settlement, and Section 5 of the Mediation Act, 2023 deals with pre-litigation mediation. Both statements are correct.

  2. Consider the following statements:
    1. The Family Courts Act, 1984 requires a family court to first attempt a settlement between the parties.
    2. The Mediation Act, 2023 allows mediation only after a suit has been filed in court.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. Section 9 of the Family Courts Act mandates settlement efforts. The Mediation Act, 2023 expressly provides for pre-litigation mediation under Section 5, so statement 2 is wrong.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    1. Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure allows courts to refer disputes to mediation.
    2. Article 39A of the Constitution deals with equal justice and free legal aid.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Section 89 CPC lists arbitration, conciliation, judicial settlement including Lok Adalat, and mediation. Article 39A is a Directive Principle on equal justice and free legal aid.

  4. According to the data cited by Justice Nagarathna, which State had the highest family court pendency as of October 2024?

    1. Odisha
    2. Bihar
    3. Assam
    4. Jharkhand
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Bihar. Bihar had 70,365 pending cases, nearly double Odisha's 36,792.

  5. Justice Nagarathna proposed dedicated geriatric mediation panels in which bodies?

    1. Gram Nyayalayas
    2. District Legal Services Authorities
    3. State Human Rights Commissions
    4. Family Welfare Committees
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) District Legal Services Authorities. She suggested geriatric mediation panels within District Legal Services Authorities to handle disputes involving senior citizens.

  6. Which statute first created specialised family courts in India?

    1. Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
    2. Special Marriage Act, 1954
    3. Family Courts Act, 1984
    4. Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Family Courts Act, 1984. The Family Courts Act, 1984 provides for the establishment of family courts to promote conciliation and speedy settlement.

Why Japan wants the UN Charter's 'enemy state' clauses deleted

  1. Under Article 108 of the UN Charter, an amendment comes into force for all members when it is adopted by two-thirds of the General Assembly and ratified by:

    1. a simple majority of UN members
    2. two-thirds of UN members, including all permanent members of the Security Council
    3. all members of the Security Council
    4. the five permanent members of the Security Council alone
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) two-thirds of UN members, including all permanent members of the Security Council. Article 108 requires ratification by two-thirds of the members of the UN, including all the permanent members of the Security Council. This gives each P5 member an effective veto over Charter change.

  2. Consider the following statements:
    1. The enemy state clauses of the UN Charter are found in Articles 53, 77 and 107.
    2. The UN General Assembly formally deleted these clauses from the Charter in 1995.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. In 1995 resolution 50/52 only declared the clauses obsolete; it could not delete them, because deletion needs an Article 108 amendment.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    1. A UN Charter amendment needs ratification by all members of the UN.
    2. Any one of the five permanent members can block a Charter amendment by not ratifying it.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2 only. Article 108 requires ratification by two-thirds of members, not all, but those two-thirds must include all five permanent members.

  4. Which Charter article allowed regional arrangements to act against an enemy state without Security Council authorisation?

    1. Article 51
    2. Article 53
    3. Article 77
    4. Article 108
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Article 53. Article 53 deals with regional arrangements and contains the enemy state exception and definition.

  5. Which Charter article covered trusteeship for territories detached from enemy states?

    1. Article 53
    2. Article 77
    3. Article 107
    4. Article 27
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Article 77. Article 77 lists categories of territories that may be placed under trusteeship, including those detached from enemy states.

  6. Which country's leader called for deletion of the enemy state clauses at the UNGA in September 2026?

    1. Germany
    2. Italy
    3. Japan
    4. South Korea
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Japan. Japanese Prime Minister Sanae Takaichi raised it in her UN General Assembly address.

Centre orders 112 captive coal plants to run at full capacity till December

  1. Consider the following statements:
    1. Section 11 of the Electricity Act, 2003 empowers the appropriate Government to direct a generating company to operate a generating station in extraordinary circumstances.
    2. A captive power plant requires a generation licence under the Electricity Act, 2003.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. Section 11 permits directions in extraordinary circumstances. The 2003 Act delicensed generation, and captive plants can be set up without a licence, so statement 2 is wrong.

  2. Consider the following statements:
    1. The recent directions apply to captive coal plants of 50 MW and above.
    2. Plants covered must sell all their output on power exchanges, including what their own factories need.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. Plants first meet their own captive needs; only the surplus must be offered on power exchanges.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    1. The Central Electricity Authority is a statutory body under the Electricity Act, 2003.
    2. Section 11 of the Electricity Act, 2003 can be used only during a declared national emergency under Article 352.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. Section 11 speaks of extraordinary circumstances; it is not tied to a proclamation under Article 352.

  4. The Section 11 directions to captive plants run until:

    1. 31 October 2026
    2. 30 November 2026
    3. 31 December 2026
    4. 31 March 2027
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 31 December 2026. The order covers 1 October to 31 December 2026.

  5. Which imported-coal plant has been under repeated Section 11 directions since March 2026?

    1. Coastal Gujarat Power Ltd, Mundra
    2. Talcher Super Thermal, Odisha
    3. Vindhyachal, Madhya Pradesh
    4. Dadri, Uttar Pradesh
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Coastal Gujarat Power Ltd, Mundra. Directions to Coastal Gujarat Power Ltd's plant were first issued on 22 March 2026 and extended to 31 December.

  6. A captive power plant is best described as:

    1. A plant owned by a State electricity board
    2. A plant set up mainly to supply its owner's own consumption
    3. A nuclear plant under the Department of Atomic Energy
    4. A plant that sells only to distribution companies
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) A plant set up mainly to supply its owner's own consumption. Captive plants are set up by users, typically industries, mainly for their own consumption.

Vedanta seeks a return to Niyamgiri, 13 years after gram sabhas said no

  1. Consider the following statements about the Niyamgiri case:
    1. The Supreme Court in 2013 directed that gram sabhas of the affected villages should decide whether mining would affect the rights of forest dwellers.
    2. The Dongria Kondh, who live in the Niyamgiri hills, are classified as a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. In Orissa Mining Corporation v. MoEF (April 2013) the Court routed the decision through gram sabhas under the Forest Rights Act, and the Dongria Kondh are a PVTG.

  2. Consider the following statements:
    1. Under the Forest Rights Act, 2006, the Gram Sabha is the authority to initiate the process of determining forest rights.
    2. PESA, 1996 applies to Sixth Schedule areas of the North-East.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. PESA extends Part IX to Fifth Schedule areas, not Sixth Schedule areas.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    1. The Niyamgiri hills lie in Rayagada and Kalahandi districts of Odisha.
    2. All 12 gram sabhas consulted in 2013 approved bauxite mining.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. All 12 gram sabhas rejected the mining proposal.

  4. Which mineral is proposed to be mined in the Niyamgiri hills?

    1. Iron ore
    2. Bauxite
    3. Chromite
    4. Coal
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Bauxite. Niyamgiri holds bauxite, the main ore of aluminium, for Vedanta's Lanjigarh alumina refinery.

  5. The Dongria Kondh are best described as:

    1. A Scheduled Caste community of coastal Odisha
    2. A Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group of the Niyamgiri hills
    3. A nomadic tribe of the Thar desert
    4. A Sixth Schedule tribe of Meghalaya
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) A Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group of the Niyamgiri hills. The Dongria Kondh live in the Niyamgiri hills and are classified as a PVTG.

  6. In the Niyamgiri case (2013), the Supreme Court:

    1. Cancelled all bauxite leases in Odisha
    2. Directed that gram sabhas decide whether mining affected forest dwellers' rights
    3. Allowed mining subject to compensation
    4. Transferred the case to the National Green Tribunal
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Directed that gram sabhas decide whether mining affected forest dwellers' rights. The Court left it to gram sabhas to decide on religious, cultural and community rights under the Forest Rights Act.

India's first port-based e-methanol plant to come up at Kandla

  1. Consider the following statements about e-methanol:
    1. It is produced by combining green hydrogen with captured carbon dioxide.
    2. It must be stored at cryogenic temperatures, like liquid hydrogen.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. E-methanol is synthesised from green hydrogen and CO2. Methanol is a liquid at ambient temperature and pressure, which is why shipping finds it easier to handle than liquid hydrogen.

  2. Consider the following statements:
    1. The Kandla e-methanol plant is a joint venture of Deendayal Port Authority and Assam Petro-Chemicals Ltd.
    2. The plant will use natural gas as its main feedstock.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. The plant uses renewable power, water and biogenic CO2. Methanol from natural gas is called grey methanol.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    1. Green hydrogen is produced by electrolysis of water using renewable electricity.
    2. The International Maritime Organization is headquartered in Geneva.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. The IMO is headquartered in London.

  4. What is the planned total capacity of the Kandla e-methanol plant?

    1. 50 tonnes a day
    2. 100 tonnes a day
    3. 150 tonnes a day
    4. 500 tonnes a day
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 150 tonnes a day. Phase I adds 50 tonnes a day and Phase II 100, for 150 in all.

  5. Methanol made from natural gas is usually called:

    1. Green methanol
    2. Grey methanol
    3. Blue hydrogen
    4. Bio-methanol
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Grey methanol. Grey methanol uses fossil feedstocks and adds net carbon to the atmosphere.

  6. Why does the source of CO2 matter for e-methanol?

    1. Biogenic CO2 makes the fuel explode more easily
    2. Fossil CO2 only delays emissions, while biogenic CO2 roughly closes the carbon loop
    3. Only fossil CO2 can react with hydrogen
    4. It does not matter at all
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Fossil CO2 only delays emissions, while biogenic CO2 roughly closes the carbon loop. Carbon from recent biological sources was recently removed from the air, so burning it roughly closes the cycle; fossil carbon originated underground.