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UPSC current affairs quiz, 25 September 2026

30 Prelims-style questions on the day's news, in the formats UPSC uses (statement-based, How many, Statement-I and II), each with the answer and an explanation. Try each one before you open the answer.

Read 25 September 2026 first24 September 2026 quiz26 September 2026 quizTimed test in the app

Opposition demands the Chief Election Commissioner's exit

  1. Consider the following statements about the Election Commission of India:
    1. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed only in the manner of a Supreme Court judge.
    2. An Election Commissioner can be removed by the President without any recommendation.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. Article 324(5) protects the CEC like a Supreme Court judge. Other ECs can be removed only on the CEC's recommendation, so statement 2 is wrong.

  2. Consider the following statements:
    1. The CEC can be removed only in the manner of a Supreme Court judge.
    2. The conditions of service of the CEC cannot be varied to his disadvantage after appointment.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both safeguards are in Article 324(5).

  3. Under the CEC and Other ECs Act, 2023, which of the following is NOT a member of the selection committee?

    1. A Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the PM
    2. Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha
    3. Prime Minister
    4. Chief Justice of India
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) Chief Justice of India. The 2023 Act replaced the CJI, who had been added by the Anoop Baranwal judgment, with a Cabinet Minister.

  4. A notice to remove the CEC is first examined for admission by the presiding officer under which law?

    1. Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968
    2. Election Commission Act, 1991
    3. Contempt of Courts Act, 1971
    4. Representation of the People Act, 1951
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. The Speaker and Chairman refused the 2026 notices under Section 3 of the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.

  5. The Special Intensive Revision, at the centre of recent disputes, relates to:

    1. Revision of electoral rolls
    2. Recognition of political parties
    3. Delimitation of constituencies
    4. Model Code of Conduct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Revision of electoral rolls. The SIR is a detailed verification and updating of electoral rolls.

  6. An Election Commissioner other than the CEC can be removed:

    1. By the President on his own
    2. Only on the recommendation of the CEC
    3. By the Supreme Court
    4. Only by impeachment
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only on the recommendation of the CEC. Article 324(5) requires the CEC's recommendation, which critics say leaves ECs less protected.

Make in India turns 12 with a patchy scorecard

  1. Make in India was launched in which year?

    1. 2012
    2. 2014
    3. 2016
    4. 2019
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2014. It was launched on 25 September 2014, which is why the 12-year assessments appeared on 25 September 2026.

  2. Make in India was launched in:

    1. 2012
    2. 2019
    3. 2016
    4. 2014
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) 2014. It was launched on 25 September 2014.

  3. Consider the following statements about Make in India at 12:
    1. Non-petroleum exports grew faster in 2014-26 than in the preceding 12 years.
    2. Manufacturing GVA grew about 10.9% a year between 2022-23 and 2025-26.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2 only. Exports grew about 53% in 12 years, slower than the 400%+ rise in the preceding 12 years, though from a smaller base then.

  4. The original Make in India target for manufacturing's share of GDP was:

    1. 30%
    2. 20%
    3. 15%
    4. 25%
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) 25%. The target was 25%; the share has stayed close to its 2014 level.

  5. Which scheme pays incentives on incremental sales over a base year?

    1. PM GatiShakti
    2. Startup India
    3. Stand-Up India
    4. Production Linked Incentive
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) Production Linked Incentive. PLI incentives are linked to incremental sales, not only investment.

  6. Make in India 2.0 covers how many sectors?

    1. 27
    2. 15
    3. 21
    4. 25
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 27. 27 sectors, including 15 manufacturing sectors.

Should the UN Security Council's permanent seats and veto go?

  1. Which of the following is NOT a member of the G4 grouping seeking permanent UNSC membership?

    1. Brazil
    2. Japan
    3. South Africa
    4. Germany
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) South Africa. The G4 is India, Brazil, Germany and Japan. South Africa is not a member.

  2. Which of the following is NOT a member of the G4?

    1. South Africa
    2. Brazil
    3. Japan
    4. Germany
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) South Africa. The G4 is India, Brazil, Germany and Japan.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    1. UNGA resolution 76/262 abolished the veto in atrocity cases.
    2. A Charter amendment needs ratification by all five permanent members.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2 only. Resolution 76/262 only requires a General Assembly debate after a veto; it did not abolish anything.

  4. Non-permanent members of the UNSC are elected for a term of:

    1. Three years
    2. Five years
    3. One year
    4. Two years
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) Two years. Ten non-permanent members serve two-year terms.

  5. The France-Mexico initiative on the veto calls for:

    1. A General Assembly veto
    2. Abolishing the veto
    3. Adding India as a permanent member
    4. Voluntary restraint in mass atrocity cases
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) Voluntary restraint in mass atrocity cases. It asks the P5 not to use the veto in genocide and mass atrocity situations.

  6. UN Security Council reform negotiations take place through the:

    1. ECOSOC
    2. Intergovernmental Negotiations (IGN)
    3. International Court of Justice
    4. Human Rights Council
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Intergovernmental Negotiations (IGN). Reform talks run through the IGN process in the General Assembly.

What are the alternatives to the SWIFT payment system?

  1. SWIFT, the global financial messaging network, is headquartered in:

    1. Switzerland
    2. Belgium
    3. The United States
    4. The Netherlands
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Belgium. SWIFT is a cooperative headquartered in La Hulpe, Belgium.

  2. SWIFT is headquartered in:

    1. Switzerland
    2. The Netherlands
    3. Belgium
    4. The United States
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Belgium. SWIFT is a cooperative based in La Hulpe, Belgium.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    1. CIPS is primarily a settlement system for renminbi payments.
    2. SPFS was set up by Russia in 2014.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct.

  4. The RBI allowed Special Rupee Vostro Accounts in:

    1. 2022
    2. 2016
    3. 2025
    4. 2019
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 2022. They were allowed in July 2022 for rupee trade settlement.

  5. Which of these is a platform for cross-border payments in central bank digital currencies?

    1. INSTEX
    2. NEFT
    3. SPFS
    4. mBridge
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) mBridge. mBridge links central bank digital currencies across jurisdictions.

  6. The main reason SWIFT alternatives have limited reach is:

    1. They are illegal
    2. They charge no fees
    3. They only work in euros
    4. Network effects and fear of secondary sanctions
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) Network effects and fear of secondary sanctions. Banks stay with SWIFT because everyone else uses it and they fear US and EU penalties.

Chhattisgarh's anti-conversion law takes effect

  1. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that the right to propagate religion does not include the right to convert another person?

    1. Bijoe Emmanuel v. State of Kerala
    2. Rev. Stainislaus v. State of Madhya Pradesh
    3. Shirur Mutt case
    4. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Rev. Stainislaus v. State of Madhya Pradesh. Rev. Stainislaus (1977) upheld the Odisha and MP anti-conversion laws on this reasoning.

  2. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that the right to propagate religion does not include the right to convert another person?

    1. Rev. Stainislaus v. State of Madhya Pradesh
    2. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
    3. Shirur Mutt case
    4. Bijoe Emmanuel v. State of Kerala
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Rev. Stainislaus v. State of Madhya Pradesh. Rev. Stainislaus (1977) upheld the Odisha and MP laws.

  3. The right to freedom of religion under Article 25 is subject to:

    1. Only national security
    2. Only the directive principles
    3. No restrictions
    4. Public order, morality and health
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) Public order, morality and health. Article 25 is subject to public order, morality and health, and other provisions of Part III.

  4. Consider the following about the Chhattisgarh law, 2026:
    1. It requires advance notice before voluntary conversion.
    2. It treats return to one's ancestral religion as conversion.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. Return to the ancestral religion is expressly excluded.

  5. Which was the first State to pass an anti-conversion law?

    1. Odisha
    2. Arunachal Pradesh
    3. Madhya Pradesh
    4. Gujarat
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Odisha. Odisha passed its law in 1967, followed by Madhya Pradesh in 1968.

  6. Which fundamental right is most often cited against prior-notice requirements for conversion?

    1. Right to privacy
    2. Right to equality
    3. Right against exploitation
    4. Right to education
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Right to privacy. Critics argue prior notice intrudes on privacy, recognised in Puttaswamy (2017).