UPSC current affairs quiz, 28 September 2026

Consider the following statements:
1. Article 326 of the Constitution provides that elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies shall be on the basis of adult suffrage.
2. In Kuldip Nayar v. Union of India (2006), the Supreme Court held that the right to vote is a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(a).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Consider the following statements:
1. The Representation of the People Act, 1950 deals with the preparation of electoral rolls.
2. The Representation of the People Act, 1951 deals with the conduct of elections and election disputes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Consider the following statements:
1. The 61st Constitutional Amendment lowered the voting age from 21 to 18.
2. Form 6 is the form used to seek deletion of a name from the electoral roll.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Superintendence, direction and control of elections is vested in the Election Commission by:

1. Article 124
2. Article 280
3. Article 324
4. Article 356

In which case did the Supreme Court describe the right to vote as a statutory right?

1. Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
2. Kuldip Nayar (2006)
3. Maneka Gandhi (1978)
4. Shreya Singhal (2015)

If the right to vote became a fundamental right, a voter could directly approach the Supreme Court under:

1. Article 32
2. Article 136
3. Article 143
4. Article 226

Under the Right to Information Act, 2005, which of the following categories of information cannot be withheld even by an intelligence or security organisation excluded under Section 24?
1. Information pertaining to allegations of corruption
2. Information pertaining to allegations of human rights violations
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Consider the following statements:
1. Section 24(4) of the RTI Act allows a State government to exclude intelligence and security organisations established by it.
2. A notification under Section 24(4) needs no scrutiny by the State Legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Consider the following statements:
1. Section 8 of the RTI Act exempts specific categories of information rather than whole organisations.
2. The Second Schedule of the RTI Act lists organisations established by State governments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

The Tamil Nadu order justified the exemption by describing the Public (Law and Order) Department as:

1. A quasi-judicial authority
2. An intelligence and security organisation
3. A private body
4. A commercial undertaking

The RTI (Amendment) Act, 2019 mainly concerned:

1. Fees for applications
2. Tenure and salaries of Information Commissioners
3. Appeals to High Courts
4. Proactive disclosure by NGOs

Which of these subjects handled by Tamil Nadu's Public (Law and Order) Department was a key concern of critics?

1. Road construction
2. Custodial deaths and police action
3. School admissions
4. Crop insurance

Consider the following statements:
1. The United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea was adopted in 1982.
2. Under UNCLOS, a coastal state's territorial sea can extend up to 24 nautical miles from the baseline.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Consider the following statements about the UN Declaration on Sea Level Rise (2026):
1. It was adopted by a recorded vote with several abstentions.
2. It affirms that maritime zones defined under UNCLOS continue even if coastlines retreat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Consider the following statements:
1. The contiguous zone under UNCLOS extends up to 24 nautical miles from the baseline.
2. The exclusive economic zone extends up to 350 nautical miles from the baseline.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Which negotiating bloc campaigned for the sea-level declaration?

1. G77
2. AOSIS
3. BASIC
4. LMDC

The main legal fear for island states from sea-level rise under UNCLOS is that:

1. Their flags will be banned
2. Baselines may move inland and shrink maritime zones
3. UNCLOS will be repealed
4. They will lose voting rights in the Security Council

Which of these is NOT one of the declaration's four action areas?

1. Science and data
2. Adaptation and financing
3. Nuclear disarmament
4. Legal consequences of sea-level rise

Consider the following statements:
1. 'Census' is a subject in the Union List of the Seventh Schedule.
2. The Census in India is conducted under the Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Consider the following statements:
1. Census 2027 is India's first digital Census.
2. Self-enumeration under Census 2027 requires uploading identity documents.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Consider the following statements:
1. Post-Independence Censuses before 2027 enumerated Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
2. Caste enumeration for Census 2027 was approved by the Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

The Census in India is conducted under:

1. Census Act, 1948
2. Collection of Statistics Act, 2008
3. Citizenship Act, 1955
4. Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969

The first phase of Census 2027 is:

1. Population enumeration
2. House-listing and housing Census
3. Caste survey
4. Post-enumeration survey

In which month is population enumeration for most of India scheduled?

1. October 2026
2. December 2026
3. February 2027
4. April 2027

With reference to the Reserve Bank of India's regulation of NBFCs, consider the following statements:
1. Under the Scale-Based Regulation framework, NBFCs in the Upper Layer are required to list on a stock exchange within three years of being identified.
2. A Core Investment Company holds at least 90% of its net assets as investments in group companies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Consider the following statements:
1. The Top Layer under the RBI's Scale-Based Regulation is expected to remain empty in normal times.
2. Base Layer NBFCs must list on a stock exchange within three years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Consider the following statements about listed companies under SEBI's LODR rules:
1. At least one-third of the board must be independent directors.
2. The board must meet at least four times a year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

A Core Investment Company must hold at least what share of its net assets as investments in group companies?

1. 51%
2. 75%
3. 90%
4. 100%

Tata Sons tried to avoid the listing requirement by:

1. Merging with a bank
2. Surrendering its CIC registration after repaying debt
3. Becoming a public sector undertaking
4. Moving its headquarters abroad

Which failure in 2018 exposed systemic risk in the NBFC sector?

1. IL&FS
2. Satyam
3. Kingfisher
4. Sahara