Pratidin

UPSC current affairs quiz, 6 October 2026

30 Prelims-style questions on the day's news, in the formats UPSC uses (statement-based, How many, Statement-I and II), each with the answer and an explanation. Try each one before you open the answer.

Read 6 October 2026 first5 October 2026 quiz7 October 2026 quizTimed test in the app

Nobel Prize in Medicine 2026 goes to the pioneers of optogenetics

  1. With reference to optogenetics, consider the following statements:
    1. It uses light-sensitive proteins, introduced into specific cells by genetic modification, to control the activity of those cells.
    2. Channelrhodopsins used in optogenetics were first identified in bacteria living in hot springs.
    3. The technique can be used both to activate and to silence neurons.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only. Statement 1 is correct: the gene for a light-sensitive protein is put into chosen cells, which then respond to light. Statement 2 is wrong: channelrhodopsin-1 and -2 were identified in the green alga Chlamydomonas, not in hot-spring bacteria. Statement 3 is correct: channelrhodopsin activates neurons, while halorhodopsin, a light-driven pump, silences them.

  2. Consider the following statements about the 2026 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine:
    1. It was awarded for discoveries concerning light-gated ion channels and optogenetics.
    2. All three laureates work at universities in the United States.
    3. The prize amount is shared equally among the three laureates.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: only Deisseroth is at Stanford in the U.S.; Hegemann is at Humboldt University of Berlin and Nagel at the University of Würzburg in Germany. Statement 3 is correct: the 12 million Swedish kronor is shared equally. Two statements are correct.

  3. Consider the following statements:
    1. A neuron at rest has a negative charge on the inside of its membrane compared with the outside.
    2. A nerve impulse begins when positively charged ions such as sodium flow into the cell.
    3. Channelrhodopsin is a pore that opens in response to light and lets positively charged ions pass.
    4. Neurotransmitters carry the signal along the length of the nerve fibre.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Statement 4 is wrong: the impulse travels along the fibre as an electrical change; neurotransmitters carry the signal across the synapse to the next cell. Three statements are correct.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Optogenetics allows researchers to test whether a specific group of neurons causes a behaviour.
    Statement-II: In optogenetics, only genetically chosen cells carry the light-sensitive protein, so light switches only those cells on or off.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. Because only chosen cells respond to light (Statement-II), scientists can switch exactly those cells on or off and see whether the behaviour changes, which is a test of cause and effect (Statement-I).

  5. Which one of the following correctly describes the light-absorbing molecule in channelrhodopsins?

    1. Chlorophyll a
    2. Retinal, a derivative of vitamin A
    3. Haemoglobin
    4. Melanin
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Retinal, a derivative of vitamin A. Rhodopsins, including channelrhodopsins, carry retinal (all-trans-retinal), an aldehyde derivative of vitamin A, which absorbs the light. Chlorophyll is the photosynthetic pigment, haemoglobin carries oxygen and melanin is a skin pigment.

  6. With reference to the Nobel Prizes, consider the following statements:
    1. The Prize in Physiology or Medicine is decided by the Nobel Assembly at Karolinska Institutet.
    2. A single Nobel Prize can be shared by at most three persons.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Statement 1 is correct: the Nobel Assembly at Karolinska Institutet in Stockholm chooses the medicine laureates. Statement 2 is correct: the rules allow at most three laureates per prize.

Supreme Court says it never approved the modified Form 6, issues notice to the EC

  1. With reference to the preparation of electoral rolls in India, consider the following statements:
    1. The forms for claims and objections, such as Form 6, are prescribed by the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960.
    2. Rules under the Representation of the People Act, 1950 are made by the Election Commission of India without any role for the Central Government.
    3. Making a false declaration in connection with the preparation of an electoral roll is a punishable offence under the Representation of the People Act, 1950.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only. Statement 1 is correct: Form 6 and the other forms are in the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960. Statement 2 is wrong: under Section 28 of the 1950 Act, the Central Government makes the rules after consulting the Election Commission. Statement 3 is correct: Section 31 punishes false statements or declarations with imprisonment up to one year, fine or both.

  2. Consider the following statements:
    1. Article 324 vests the superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls in the Election Commission.
    2. Article 326 provides that elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies shall be on the basis of adult suffrage.
    3. Article 325 allows separate electoral rolls for different religious communities in a constituency.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: Article 325 provides one general electoral roll for every constituency and bars exclusion on grounds of religion, race, caste or sex. Two statements are correct.

  3. With reference to the Representation of the People Act, 1950, consider the following statements:
    1. Section 28 empowers the Central Government to make rules after consulting the Election Commission.
    2. Section 31 makes a false declaration in connection with electoral rolls punishable.
    3. Section 32 punishes an official's breach of duty in preparing electoral rolls with imprisonment of three months to two years and fine.
    4. The Act deals with the conduct of elections and election petitions.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Statement 4 is wrong: conduct of elections, corrupt practices and election petitions are dealt with in the Representation of the People Act, 1951; the 1950 Act deals with rolls and allocation of seats. Three statements are correct.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: A decision of the Election Commission taken by the Chief Election Commissioner over the objection of both Election Commissioners is open to challenge.
    Statement-II: Under the 2023 Act, the business of the Election Commission is to be transacted unanimously as far as possible and, where members differ, according to the opinion of the majority.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct and II explains I. Section 18(2) of the 2023 Act requires unanimity as far as possible and otherwise a majority decision. A CEC acting against both colleagues would not have a majority, which is why such a decision is open to challenge.

  5. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court describe Article 324 as a reservoir of power for the Election Commission where the law is silent?

    1. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
    2. Mohinder Singh Gill v. Chief Election Commissioner
    3. Indra Sawhney v. Union of India
    4. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Mohinder Singh Gill v. Chief Election Commissioner. In Mohinder Singh Gill (1978) the Court held that Article 324 is a plenary provision that operates where enacted law is silent. Kesavananda (1973) is the basic structure case, Indra Sawhney (1992) is on reservation and Bommai (1994) on President's Rule.

  6. With reference to the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023, consider the following statements:
    1. It bars civil and criminal proceedings against a present or former CEC or EC for acts done in the course of official duty.
    2. It allows the Chief Election Commissioner alone to decide any matter on which the Election Commissioners differ with him.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct: Section 16 gives this protection. Statement 2 is wrong: under Section 18(2), business is to be transacted unanimously as far as possible, and where the CEC and Election Commissioners differ, the matter is decided by the opinion of the majority.

India and Switzerland sign five pacts, including a five-year visa and mobility deal

  1. With reference to the India-EFTA Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA), consider the following statements:
    1. It entered into force on 1 October 2025.
    2. All members of the European Free Trade Association are also members of the European Union.
    3. It includes a commitment to raise investment in India by USD 100 billion over 15 years.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: none of EFTA's four members (Switzerland, Norway, Iceland, Liechtenstein) is in the European Union. Statement 3 is correct: USD 50 billion within 10 years and a further USD 50 billion in the next five years.

  2. Consider the following countries:
    1. Norway
    2. Iceland
    3. Austria
    4. Liechtenstein
    How many of the above are members of the European Free Trade Association (EFTA)?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Norway, Iceland and Liechtenstein are EFTA members, along with Switzerland. Austria was a founding member of EFTA in 1960 but left when it joined the European Union in 1995. Three of the four listed are members.

  3. With reference to the agreements signed during the Swiss President's State visit to India in October 2026, consider the following statements:
    1. Multiple-entry visas can be issued for up to five years, with stays of up to six months per visit.
    2. The young professionals agreement fixes an unchangeable quota of 500 persons a year from each country.
    3. A Letter of Intent was signed between India's Department of Science and Technology and the Swiss National Science Foundation.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the quota is 300 a year from each country, which may increase to 500. Statement 3 is correct. Two statements are correct.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: India runs a large trade deficit with Switzerland.
    Statement-II: Gold accounts for a large share of India's imports from Switzerland, which is a major gold refining centre.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct and II explains I. In 2024-25 India exported USD 1.67 billion to Switzerland and imported USD 25.17 billion; gold imports from Switzerland, a major refining hub, are the main reason for the gap.

  5. The India-EFTA Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement is notable among India's free trade agreements because it:

    1. Creates a customs union between India and the EFTA countries
    2. Contains a binding commitment on investment and job creation
    3. Makes India an associate member of EFTA
    4. Gives EFTA nationals the right to work in India without visas
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Contains a binding commitment on investment and job creation. TEPA commits the EFTA countries to raise investment in India by USD 100 billion over 15 years and to help create one million direct jobs, described by the government as the first binding pledge of its kind in an Indian FTA. It is a free trade agreement, not a customs union; it does not make India part of EFTA; and it does not abolish visa requirements.

  6. With reference to Switzerland's political system, consider the following statements:
    1. The President of the Swiss Confederation is elected by the Federal Assembly for a one-year term.
    2. Switzerland is a member of the European Economic Area.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct: the Federal Assembly elects one of the seven Federal Councillors as President for one year. Statement 2 is wrong: Norway, Iceland and Liechtenstein are in the European Economic Area, but Switzerland is not; it relates to the EU through bilateral agreements.

Why Buxa is bringing tigers back: a tigress from Bihar starts West Bengal's reintroduction

  1. With reference to Buxa Tiger Reserve, consider the following statements:
    1. It shares a boundary with Bhutan.
    2. It was one of the nine tiger reserves created at the launch of Project Tiger in 1973.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct: Buxa's northern boundary runs along the international border with Bhutan, adjoining Phibsoo Wildlife Sanctuary. Statement 2 is wrong: Buxa became a tiger reserve in 1983, as India's 15th, ten years after Project Tiger began with nine reserves.

  2. Consider the following pairs:
    Tiger Reserve : State
    1. Buxa : West Bengal
    2. Valmiki : Bihar
    3. Satkosia : Madhya Pradesh
    How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Buxa is in West Bengal and Valmiki in Bihar, so pairs 1 and 2 are correct. Satkosia is in Odisha, not Madhya Pradesh; the tigers sent there in 2018 came from Madhya Pradesh's Kanha and Bandhavgarh. Two pairs are correct.

  3. Consider the following statements about tiger reintroduction in India:
    1. Sariska received its first translocated tiger from Ranthambhore by helicopter in 2008.
    2. Panna was restocked with tigers from Bandhavgarh, Kanha and Pench after losing all its tigers by 2009.
    3. The Satkosia translocation of 2018 is regarded as a successful model and is still continuing.
    4. Buxa's programme began with a tigress from Valmiki Tiger Reserve.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: the Satkosia project ran into trouble within weeks, one tiger was poached, the other strayed towards villages, and the project was suspended. Three statements are correct.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Buxa released chital and restored grassland for several years before bringing in a tiger.
    Statement-II: Declining prey was one of the reasons tigers disappeared from Buxa.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct and II explains I. Habitat degradation, fragmentation and declining prey led to the loss of resident tigers, so the programme first rebuilt the prey base, releasing over 800 chital and restoring about 380 hectares of grassland since 2018.

  5. Under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, the 'core or critical tiger habitat' of a tiger reserve is:

    1. An area where tourism is the primary permitted activity
    2. An area required to be kept inviolate for tiger conservation, identified on scientific evidence
    3. The peripheral area where human settlements are encouraged
    4. An area under the exclusive control of the Union government
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) An area required to be kept inviolate for tiger conservation, identified on scientific evidence. Section 38V describes the core or critical tiger habitat as an area to be kept inviolate for tiger conservation, established on scientific and objective criteria. The buffer is the peripheral area promoting coexistence; reserves remain under State management with NTCA oversight.

  6. With reference to the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA), consider the following statements:
    1. It was created through an amendment to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 in 2006.
    2. It is chaired by the Prime Minister.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct: the Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act, 2006 created the NTCA. Statement 2 is wrong: the Union Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change chairs the NTCA. (The National Board for Wildlife is chaired by the Prime Minister.)

Op-ed: Make cancer a notifiable disease so that every diagnosis is counted

  1. With reference to the National Cancer Registry Programme (NCRP) in India, consider the following statements:
    1. It functions under the Indian Council of Medical Research.
    2. Population-based cancer registries record the treatment and outcomes of patients in a single hospital.
    3. It began in the 1980s.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 3 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only. Statement 1 is correct: the NCRP is an ICMR programme, now run by ICMR-NCDIR, Bengaluru. Statement 2 is wrong: that describes hospital-based registries; population-based registries collect all cancer cases in a defined geographic population. Statement 3 is correct: it started in December 1981.

  2. Consider the following statements:
    1. Entry 6 of the State List covers public health and sanitation, and hospitals and dispensaries.
    2. Prevention of the spread of infectious diseases from one State to another is in the Concurrent List.
    3. Only Parliament can declare a disease notifiable in India.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct (State List Entry 6; Concurrent List Entry 29). Statement 3 is wrong: States notify diseases under their public health laws or other legislation; Telangana itself made cancer notifiable in April 2026. Two statements are correct.

  3. With reference to cancer surveillance in India, consider the following statements:
    1. The National Cancer Registry Programme began with three population-based and three hospital-based registries.
    2. Because cancer is not notifiable in most States, registry staff actively visit hospitals and laboratories to find cases.
    3. The Supreme Court in August 2026 directed the Union to make cancer notifiable in every State by law.
    4. Telangana's 2026 order requires diagnosed cases to be reported within one month.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: the Court asked the remaining 19 States and UTs to consider notifying cancer and file compliance affidavits; it did not order the Union to impose notification by law, though the CJI asked why the Union had not issued uniform guidelines. Three statements are correct.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: The Supreme Court asked States and Union Territories, rather than the Union government alone, to consider making cancer a notifiable disease.
    Statement-II: Public health and hospitals are subjects in the State List of the Constitution.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct and II explains I. Because public health and hospitals fall in State List Entry 6, notification is mainly a State decision, so the Court addressed the 19 States and UTs that had not yet notified cancer.

  5. In November 2024 the Union Health Ministry asked States to make which of the following a notifiable disease?

    1. Dengue
    2. Snakebite cases and deaths
    3. Type 2 diabetes
    4. Sickle cell disease
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Snakebite cases and deaths. In November 2024 the Health Ministry asked States and UTs to make snakebite cases and deaths notifiable under their public health laws, as part of the national action plan to halve snakebite deaths by 2030.

  6. With reference to the opinion article of 6 October 2026 on cancer notification, consider the following statements:
    1. It proposes a common digital reporting system on the lines of CoWIN.
    2. It warns that a rise in reported cases after notification would mean that cancer is spreading faster.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the article cautions that the initial rise in reported cases reflects more complete reporting and should not be read as an increase in disease.