UPSC current affairs quiz, 7 October 2026
30 Prelims-style questions on the day's news, in the formats UPSC uses (statement-based, How many, Statement-I and II), each with the answer and an explanation. Try each one before you open the answer.
Physics Nobel 2026 goes to Francis Halzen for the IceCube neutrino observatory
With reference to the IceCube Neutrino Observatory, consider the following statements:
1. It is located near the Amundsen-Scott South Pole Station in Antarctica.
2. It detects neutrinos by recording Cherenkov light given off by charged particles produced in the ice.
3. Its sensors are laid on the surface of the ice sheet to avoid interference from bedrock.
Which of the statements given above are correct?- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. Statement 1 is correct: IceCube sits at the Amundsen-Scott South Pole Station. Statement 2 is correct: a neutrino striking a nucleus makes charged particles that emit Cherenkov light, which the sensors record. Statement 3 is wrong: the sensors are buried 1,450 to 2,450 metres deep, because the ice above shields them from other particles.
Consider the following statements:
1. Neutrinos carry no electric charge.
2. Wolfgang Pauli first detected the neutrino experimentally in 1956.
3. The 2015 Nobel Prize in Physics was awarded for showing that neutrinos change flavour.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. 1 is correct: neutrinos are electrically neutral. 2 is wrong: Pauli proposed the neutrino in 1930; Cowan, Reines and colleagues detected it in 1956. 3 is correct: Kajita and McDonald won in 2015 for showing flavour change, which proves neutrinos have mass.
Consider the following statements about the IceCube Neutrino Observatory:
1. Its sensors sit between 1,450 and 2,450 metres below the ice surface.
2. It has 5,160 optical sensors on 86 strings.
3. Its construction was completed in December 2010.
4. The 2026 Nobel Prize in Physics for it was shared by three scientists.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (c) Only three. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. 4 is wrong: Francis Halzen received the whole prize, the first unshared physics Nobel since 1992.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: A high-energy neutrino detected on Earth can be traced back towards the object that produced it.
Statement-II: Neutrinos carry no charge and interact very weakly, so they are neither bent by magnetic fields nor absorbed on the way.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. Because a neutrino is not deflected or absorbed, its arrival direction points to its source, which is why IceCube could link a neutrino to the blazar TXS 0506+056. Statement-II explains Statement-I.
In 2018, the IceCube collaboration traced a high-energy neutrino detected in September 2017 to which of the following?
- Supernova 1987A
- The Crab Nebula
- Sagittarius A*, the black hole at the Milky Way's centre
- The blazar TXS 0506+056
Show answer
Answer: (d) The blazar TXS 0506+056. The neutrino was traced to TXS 0506+056, a blazar about 3.7 billion light-years away, the first time a neutrino detector helped locate a source in space. The other options were not the source of this event.
Consider the following statements about the India-based Neutrino Observatory (INO):
1. It is planned in Theni district of Tamil Nadu.
2. Its main detector is designed to study atmospheric neutrinos.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct. The INO is planned near Pottipuram in Theni district, and its 50,000-tonne magnetised iron detector, ICAL, is meant to study atmospheric neutrinos and the neutrino mass ordering.
Cabinet approves ₹10,000 crore SME Growth Fund to put equity into growing small firms
Under the MSME classification in force from 1 April 2025, which one of the following gives the investment and turnover limits for a medium enterprise?
- Investment up to ₹50 crore and turnover up to ₹250 crore
- Investment up to ₹125 crore and turnover up to ₹500 crore
- Investment up to ₹25 crore and turnover up to ₹100 crore
- Investment up to ₹250 crore and turnover up to ₹1,000 crore
Show answer
Answer: (b) Investment up to ₹125 crore and turnover up to ₹500 crore. From 1 April 2025 the limits are: micro, ₹2.5 crore and ₹10 crore; small, ₹25 crore and ₹100 crore; medium, ₹125 crore and ₹500 crore. The first option gives the old medium limits; the third gives the new small limits.
Consider the following statements about the SME Growth Fund:
1. It was announced in the Union Budget 2026-27.
2. The Government's ₹10,000 crore will be given to SMEs as concessional loans.
3. A majority of its allocation is meant for manufacturing-focused SMEs.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. 1 is correct: Para 28 of the Union Budget 2026-27. 2 is wrong: the money is committed to an Alternative Investment Fund that makes direct equity investments, not loans. 3 is correct: the Cabinet release says majority allocation will go to small and medium manufacturing-focused enterprises.
Consider the following statements about Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) in India:
1. Venture capital funds and SME funds fall under Category I.
2. Hedge funds that trade for short-term returns fall under Category III.
3. Private equity funds and debt funds fall under Category II.
4. AIFs are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (c) Only three. 1, 2 and 3 match the SEBI (Alternative Investment Funds) Regulations, 2012. 4 is wrong: AIFs are regulated by SEBI, not the RBI.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Union Cabinet considers growth-stage small and medium enterprises underserved by existing equity funds.
Statement-II: Most existing equity funds focus on early-stage enterprises and cover mainly micro enterprises.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct and Statement-II is the reason the Cabinet gives: because existing funds concentrate on early-stage and micro firms, a structural gap remains for growth capital for small and medium enterprises.
Consider the following statements about the Self-Reliant India (SRI) Fund:
1. Its total size is ₹50,000 crore, of which ₹10,000 crore comes from the government.
2. NSIC Venture Capital Fund Ltd acts as its mother fund.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- 1 only
- 2 only
- Neither 1 nor 2
- Both 1 and 2
Show answer
Answer: (d) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct. The SRI Fund, announced in 2020, has ₹10,000 crore from the government and ₹40,000 crore expected from private equity and venture capital funds, and NSIC Venture Capital Fund Ltd is the mother fund.
Under the MSME criteria in force from 1 April 2025, an enterprise with investment in plant and machinery of ₹20 crore and annual turnover of ₹80 crore is classified as:
- Micro
- Small
- Medium
- Not an MSME
Show answer
Answer: (b) Small. A small enterprise has investment up to ₹25 crore and turnover up to ₹100 crore. ₹20 crore and ₹80 crore exceed the micro limits (₹2.5 crore and ₹10 crore) but are within the small limits.
Editorial: India's leprosy numbers overshoot targets, two decades after 'elimination'
With reference to leprosy in India, consider the following statements:
1. 'Elimination as a public health problem' means a prevalence rate below one case per 10,000 population.
2. The National Leprosy Eradication Programme was earlier known as the National Leprosy Control Programme.
3. A single dose of rifampicin is given to close contacts of patients as post-exposure prophylaxis.
Which of the statements given above are correct?- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3. All three are correct. Elimination is defined as prevalence below 1 per 10,000; India reached it in 2005. The National Leprosy Control Programme of 1954-55 became the NLEP in 1983 after MDT was introduced. Single-dose rifampicin post-exposure prophylaxis is recommended by WHO and used under the NLEP.
Consider the following statements about leprosy:
1. It is caused by a virus.
2. It can be spread by shaking hands with a patient.
3. It is curable with multidrug therapy.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (a) Only one. Only 3 is correct. 1 is wrong: leprosy is caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium leprae. 2 is wrong: it spreads through droplets during prolonged close contact; WHO says casual contact such as shaking hands does not spread it. 3 is correct: MDT with dapsone, rifampicin and clofazimine cures it.
Consider the following statements about leprosy in India in 2025-26, as reported from NLEP data:
1. India recorded 91,783 new cases.
2. Children made up more than 10% of new cases.
3. Overall incidence was 41% above the strategic plan's projection.
4. The grade-2 disability rate was below the target of one per million.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. 1 and 3 are correct. 2 is wrong: the 3,832 child cases were 4.18% of new cases. 4 is wrong: the grade-2 disability rate was 1.34 per million, above the target of less than one.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: A fall in leprosy prevalence can hide continuing transmission.
Statement-II: Multidrug therapy shortens the time patients remain on the register, so prevalence can drop even while new infections occur.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. Prevalence counts cases on the register; because MDT clears patients from it quickly, prevalence can fall while incidence (new cases) stays high, which is the editorial's explanation for missed targets.
Which of the following is recommended by WHO to protect close contacts of leprosy patients?
- BCG revaccination of all adults
- A single dose of rifampicin as post-exposure prophylaxis
- Lifelong dapsone for all household members
- Isolation of patients in leprosy colonies
Show answer
Answer: (b) A single dose of rifampicin as post-exposure prophylaxis. WHO recommends screening contacts and giving a single dose of rifampicin as post-exposure prophylaxis. The other options are not WHO recommendations for contacts.
Consider the following statements:
1. The National Leprosy Control Programme was launched in 1954-55.
2. The National Strategic Plan and Roadmap for Leprosy covers the period 2023-2027.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct. The control programme began in 1954-55 and became the NLEP in 1983. The current strategic plan and roadmap runs from 2023 to 2027, with the goal of interrupting transmission by 2030.
Sukma gram sabha denies burial land to tribal Christians, citing PESA
Under Section 4(d) of the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, the gram sabha is competent to safeguard and preserve which of the following?
1. Traditions and customs of the people and their cultural identity
2. Community resources
3. Places of worship of all religions in the village
Select the correct answer using the code given below.- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. Section 4(d) lists traditions and customs and cultural identity, community resources, and the customary mode of dispute resolution. Places of worship are not part of the list, so 3 is wrong.
Consider the following statements about the PESA Act, 1996:
1. It extends the provisions of Part IX of the Constitution to Fifth Schedule areas.
2. It applies to the Sixth Schedule areas of Assam and Meghalaya.
3. It makes the gram sabha competent to safeguard the customary mode of dispute resolution.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. 1 is correct: PESA extends the panchayat provisions to Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule. 2 is wrong: Sixth Schedule areas are governed by autonomous councils, not PESA. 3 is correct: Section 4(d) includes the customary mode of dispute resolution.
Consider the following about States where PESA applies:
1. Chhattisgarh
2. Telangana
3. Himachal Pradesh
4. Mizoram
How many of the above are among the ten States with Fifth Schedule areas covered by PESA?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (c) Only three. Chhattisgarh, Telangana and Himachal Pradesh are among the ten PESA States. Mizoram is not: its tribal areas fall under the Sixth Schedule.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: In January 2025, the Supreme Court directed that a Christian man's father be buried at a designated Christian ground about 20 km from his village, despite a split between the two judges.
Statement-II: Article 25 of the Constitution gives every person an absolute right to choose a burial place, free of any restriction.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. Statement-I is correct: in Ramesh Baghel's case both judges directed burial at Karkapal to avoid delay. Statement-II is wrong: Article 25 is subject to public order, morality and health, and Justice Sharma held there is no unqualified right to choose the place of burial.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Chhattisgarh High Court in November 2025 upheld gram sabha hoardings barring pastors from entering villages.
2. The Supreme Court in February 2026 set aside that High Court ruling.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 only. 1 is correct: Digbal Tandi v. State of Chhattisgarh, 3 November 2025. 2 is wrong: on 16 February 2026 the Supreme Court dismissed the appeal and told the petitioner to approach the competent authority under the PESA Rules.
In which case did the Supreme Court hold that transfer of tribal land in Scheduled Areas to private parties for mining is null and void?
- Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
- S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
- Orissa Mining Corporation v. Ministry of Environment and Forest
- Samatha v. State of Andhra Pradesh
Show answer
Answer: (d) Samatha v. State of Andhra Pradesh. Samatha (1997) held such transfers void under the Fifth Schedule. Kesavananda Bharati is the basic structure case, S.R. Bommai is on President's Rule, and the Orissa Mining Corporation (Niyamgiri) case concerned gram sabha consent for mining, not land transfer.
At pre-COP31 talks in Fiji, India says climate action has no 'one-size-fits-all' path
In the UN climate negotiations, the term 'means of implementation' refers to:
- Nationally determined targets for cutting greenhouse gas emissions
- Finance, technology transfer and capacity-building support for developing countries
- Carbon border taxes imposed on imports from high-emitting countries
- Penalties imposed on countries that miss their emission targets
Show answer
Answer: (b) Finance, technology transfer and capacity-building support for developing countries. Means of implementation is the support developing countries need to act on climate: finance, technology and capacity-building. Emission targets are nationally determined contributions; carbon border taxes are national trade measures; the Paris Agreement has no penalties for missing targets.
Consider the following statements about COP31:
1. It will be held in Antalya, Türkiye.
2. Australia's climate minister will preside over the negotiations.
3. Its pre-COP meetings were held in Brazil.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. 1 and 2 are correct under the November 2025 compromise. 3 is wrong: the pre-COP31 meetings were held in Fiji and Tuvalu; Brazil hosted COP30 in Belém.
Consider the following statements:
1. Article 3(1) of the UNFCCC refers to common but differentiated responsibilities and respective capabilities.
2. Article 7.1 of the Paris Agreement establishes the Global Goal on Adaptation.
3. Article 9.1 of the Paris Agreement says developed countries shall provide financial resources to developing countries.
4. The Paris Agreement sets binding emission targets only for Annex I countries.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (c) Only three. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. 4 is wrong: binding targets only for Annex I countries was the Kyoto Protocol's approach; under the Paris Agreement every country sets its own nationally determined contribution.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: India argues that adaptation and means of implementation deserve as much attention as mitigation in climate negotiations.
Statement-II: The Paris Agreement contains no provision on finance from developed to developing countries.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. Statement-I is correct: Bhupender Yadav said so at the pre-COP31 meetings. Statement-II is wrong: Article 9.1 of the Paris Agreement says developed country Parties shall provide financial resources to developing countries for mitigation and adaptation.
The 'New Collective Quantified Goal' agreed at COP29 in Baku relates to:
- A target for the share of renewable energy in global power
- A cap on global methane emissions
- Climate finance from developed to developing countries
- A timeline to phase out coal power
Show answer
Answer: (c) Climate finance from developed to developing countries. The NCQG is the climate finance goal: developed countries are to channel at least $300 billion a year to developing countries by 2035. It is not an energy, methane or coal target.
Consider the following statements about COP30 held in Belém in November 2025:
1. It adopted 59 global indicators for tracking adaptation progress.
2. It called for tripling adaptation finance by 2035.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- 1 only
- 2 only
- Neither 1 nor 2
- Both 1 and 2
Show answer
Answer: (d) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct. COP30 adopted 59 indicators for the Global Goal on Adaptation and called for tripling adaptation finance by 2035, though without clarity on who pays.