Pratidin

UPSC current affairs quiz, 8 October 2026

30 Prelims-style questions on the day's news, in the formats UPSC uses (statement-based, How many, Statement-I and II), each with the answer and an explanation. Try each one before you open the answer.

Read 8 October 2026 first7 October 2026 quiz9 October 2026 quizTimed test in the app

RBI raises repo rate to 5.5%, first hike since 2023, shifts to 'calibrated tightening'

  1. With reference to the RBI's monetary policy decision of 7 October 2026, consider the following statements:
    1. The MPC raised the repo rate to 5.5% by a unanimous vote.
    2. The standing deposit facility rate was set 25 basis points above the repo rate.
    3. The change of stance to 'calibrated tightening' was also unanimous.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct: all six members voted for the 25 basis point hike to 5.5%. Statement 2 is wrong: the SDF (5.25%) is the floor of the corridor, 25 basis points below the repo rate; the MSF (5.75%) is 25 basis points above. Statement 3 is wrong: the stance change passed 4-2, with Nagesh Kumar and Ram Singh preferring neutral.

  2. Consider the following statements about the Monetary Policy Committee:
    1. It is constituted under the RBI Act, 1934.
    2. Three of its six members are external members appointed by the Central Government.
    3. The Union Finance Minister has a casting vote when votes are tied.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. 1 is correct: Section 45ZB of the RBI Act creates the MPC. 2 is correct: three members are external, appointed by the Centre. 3 is wrong: the RBI Governor, who chairs the MPC, has the casting vote; the Finance Minister is not a member.

  3. Consider the following statements about the RBI's decision of 7 October 2026:
    1. The repo rate was raised by 25 basis points.
    2. The MSF rate now stands at 5.75%.
    3. The CPI inflation projection for Q3 of 2026-27 is 6.0%.
    4. The vote on the stance was unanimous.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. 1, 2 and 3 are correct: the repo rose 25 basis points to 5.5%, the MSF is 5.75%, and Q3 CPI is projected at 6.0%. 4 is wrong: the rate vote was unanimous but the stance change passed 4-2.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: The RBI raised the repo rate in October 2026 although August CPI inflation was 4.82%, inside the 2% to 6% band.
    Statement-II: Monetary policy acts with a lag, so the MPC sets rates on the basis of projected inflation.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. August inflation was 4.82%, but the MPC projected about 5.8% over the next three quarters and 6.0% in Q3. Because rate changes take time to work, policy targets the projection, which explains the hike.

  5. In the RBI's liquidity adjustment facility, which rate forms the floor of the policy corridor?

    1. Bank Rate
    2. Marginal standing facility rate
    3. Standing deposit facility rate
    4. Cash reserve ratio
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Standing deposit facility rate. The SDF, at 25 basis points below the repo rate (5.25% now), is the floor. The MSF and the Bank Rate (5.75%) form the ceiling. The CRR is a reserve requirement, not a corridor rate.

  6. Consider the following statements:
    1. Under the RBI Act, the inflation target is set by the Central Government in consultation with the RBI.
    2. The target is defined in terms of the Wholesale Price Index.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. 1 is correct: Section 45ZA lets the Centre fix the target in consultation with the RBI. 2 is wrong: the target is 4% on the Consumer Price Index (combined), not the WPI.

Living Planet Report 2026: monitored wildlife populations fell 73% from 1970 to 2022

  1. With reference to the Living Planet Report 2026, consider the following statements:
    1. It reports that 73% of all individual wild vertebrates alive in 1970 have been lost.
    2. Among ecosystems, freshwater populations show the steepest average decline.
    3. The Living Planet Index used in the report is compiled by the Zoological Society of London.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only. Statement 1 is wrong: the 73% is the average proportional decline in the size of monitored populations, not a count of animals lost. Statement 2 is correct: freshwater fell 85%, against 69% for terrestrial and 59% for marine. Statement 3 is correct: ZSL compiles the LPI.

  2. Consider the following statements about the Living Planet Report 2026:
    1. It covers the period 1970 to 2022.
    2. It is based on 35,803 populations of 5,790 vertebrate species.
    3. It finds marine populations declining faster than freshwater populations.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. 1 and 2 are correct. 3 is wrong: freshwater fell 85% on average and marine 59%, so freshwater declined faster.

  3. Consider the following regional declines reported by the Living Planet Report 2026:
    1. Latin America and the Caribbean: 95%
    2. Africa: 80%
    3. Asia-Pacific: 49%
    4. Europe and North America show the steepest declines because of industrialisation.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. 1, 2 and 3 match the report. 4 is wrong: the steepest regional decline is in Latin America and the Caribbean (95%), not in Europe or North America.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: The Living Planet Index can fall by 73% even though about half of the monitored populations are stable or increasing.
    Statement-II: The index averages the proportional change of each population, so steep falls in some populations can outweigh gains in others.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. The report says about half the populations are stable (7%) or increasing (43%), but the magnitude of declines outweighs the increases. The averaging method explains how both can be true.

  5. Which organisation compiles the Living Planet Index used in WWF's Living Planet Report?

    1. International Union for Conservation of Nature
    2. Zoological Society of London
    3. United Nations Environment Programme
    4. BirdLife International
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Zoological Society of London. The Zoological Society of London (ZSL) compiles the LPI. IUCN publishes the Red List, UNEP is a UN programme, and BirdLife International identifies Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas.

  6. With reference to the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework, consider the following statements:
    1. It was adopted at COP15 of the Convention on Biological Diversity in December 2022.
    2. It aims to conserve at least 30% of land and of coastal and marine areas by 2030.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct. The framework was adopted at CBD COP15 in Montreal in December 2022, and its Target 3 ('30 by 30') covers at least 30% of land and of coastal and marine areas by 2030.

Explained: detention vs arrest, and the limits the law places on police powers

  1. With reference to police powers under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, consider the following statements:
    1. Section 170 allows the police to arrest without a warrant a person designing to commit a cognizable offence, if the offence cannot otherwise be prevented.
    2. Under Section 172, a person detained for resisting a lawful police direction may be held for up to 72 hours without being produced before a magistrate.
    3. Section 163 corresponds to Section 144 of the old CrPC.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only. Statement 1 is correct: this is the preventive arrest power, the successor of CrPC Section 151. Statement 2 is wrong: the person must be taken before a magistrate or, in petty cases, released as soon as possible within 24 hours. Statement 3 is correct: Section 163 BNSS is the successor of CrPC Section 144 on prohibitory orders.

  2. Consider the following statements about Article 22 of the Constitution:
    1. An arrested person must be produced before the nearest magistrate within 24 hours, excluding the time of travel.
    2. The rights in clauses (1) and (2) do not apply to a person detained under a preventive detention law.
    3. Preventive detention beyond three months needs the opinion of an Advisory Board.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) All three. All three are correct: clause (2) sets the 24-hour rule; clause (3) excludes preventive detainees and enemy aliens from clauses (1) and (2); clause (4) requires an Advisory Board's opinion for detention beyond three months.

  3. Match the new provision with the old one it replaced:
    1. Section 163 BNSS : Section 144 CrPC
    2. Section 170 BNSS : Section 151 CrPC
    3. Section 223 BNS : Section 188 IPC
    4. Section 58 BNSS : Section 167 CrPC
    How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. Pairs 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Pair 4 is wrong: Section 58 BNSS corresponds to Section 57 CrPC (24-hour limit); remand under CrPC Section 167 is now Section 187 BNSS.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: A protester detained under Section 172 BNSS for defying a police direction can later be formally arrested.
    Statement-II: Disobeying a prohibitory order issued under Section 163 BNSS can be an offence under Section 223 BNS.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct, and II explains I: once disobedience of a Section 163 order is made out as an offence under Section 223 BNS, police can register an FIR and the detention can become an arrest.

  5. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that police should not arrest merely because it is lawful to do so, and that the arrest must be justified?

    1. A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
    2. Joginder Kumar v. State of U.P.
    3. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
    4. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Joginder Kumar v. State of U.P.. Joginder Kumar (1994) laid down that arrest must be justified. A.K. Gopalan (1950) dealt with preventive detention and a narrow reading of Article 21; Maneka Gandhi (1978) expanded Article 21; Kesavananda Bharati (1973) gave the basic structure doctrine.

  6. Consider the following statements:
    1. A cognizable offence is one for which the police may arrest without a warrant.
    2. Section 170 BNSS requires a magistrate's warrant before a preventive arrest.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only. 1 is correct by definition. 2 is wrong: Section 170 allows arrest without orders from a magistrate and without a warrant, if the offence cannot otherwise be prevented.

Chemistry Nobel 2026 to Henri Kagan and Kenso Soai for amplifying molecular 'handedness'

  1. With reference to the Nobel Prize in Chemistry 2026, consider the following statements:
    1. It was awarded for the discovery of non-linear effects and autocatalysis in asymmetric organic synthesis.
    2. In asymmetric autocatalysis, a chiral product speeds up the formation of more molecules of its own handedness.
    3. Ordinary chemical reactions that do not use a chiral influence produce mostly the left-handed form of a molecule.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. Statement 1 is the official prize motivation. Statement 2 describes Soai's asymmetric autocatalysis. Statement 3 is wrong: without a chiral influence, reactions give equal amounts of both mirror images (a racemic mixture).

  2. Consider the following statements about chiral molecules:
    1. Enantiomers are mirror images that cannot be superimposed on each other.
    2. The two enantiomers of a drug always have the same effect in the body.
    3. A reaction with no chiral influence gives a racemic mixture.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. 1 and 3 are correct. 2 is wrong: receptors and enzymes are chiral, so one enantiomer may be therapeutic and the other inactive or harmful.

  3. Consider the following statements about the 2026 Nobel Prize in Chemistry:
    1. It was shared by a French and a Japanese chemist.
    2. The prize amount was 12 million Swedish kronor, shared equally.
    3. Kagan's key discovery of non-linear effects dates to 1986.
    4. It was awarded for developing CRISPR gene editing.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. 4 is wrong: the prize was for non-linear effects and autocatalysis in asymmetric organic synthesis; CRISPR won the 2020 Chemistry Nobel.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Asymmetric autocatalysis can turn a small excess of one enantiomer into a large excess.
    Statement-II: In asymmetric autocatalysis, the chiral product catalyses the formation of more molecules of its own handedness.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct and II explains I: because each product molecule makes more of its own hand, the majority form grows faster and the excess is amplified.

  5. The two mirror-image forms of the molecule carvone are known to differ in which of the following?

    1. Molecular formula
    2. Smell, one of mint and the other of caraway
    3. Number of carbon atoms
    4. Boiling point by more than 50 degrees Celsius
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Smell, one of mint and the other of caraway. Enantiomers share the same formula and atoms and nearly identical physical properties, but chiral smell receptors distinguish them: one carvone smells of mint, the other of caraway.

  6. Consider the following statements:
    1. Living organisms build proteins from left-handed amino acids.
    2. Louis Pasteur's mid-19th century work on tartaric acid is linked to the discovery of molecular handedness.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct. Proteins use left-handed (L) amino acids, and Pasteur's study of tartaric acid was an early milestone in understanding chirality.

Op-ed: India's stakes in the WHO Pandemic Agreement as pathogen-sharing talks drag on

  1. With reference to the WHO Pandemic Agreement, consider the following statements:
    1. It was adopted by the World Health Assembly in May 2025.
    2. It will enter into force after ratification by 60 countries.
    3. It opened for signature immediately on adoption, with the PABS annex to follow later.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. Statement 1 is correct: adopted on 20 May 2025 at the 78th World Health Assembly. Statement 2 is correct: 60 ratifications are needed. Statement 3 is wrong: it opens for signature only after the Assembly adopts the PABS annex, which is still being negotiated.

  2. Consider the following statements about the WHO Pandemic Agreement:
    1. It was adopted by the World Health Assembly in May 2025.
    2. It enters into force after 60 ratifications.
    3. It gives the WHO Secretariat power to order national lockdowns.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Only two. 1 and 2 are correct. 3 is wrong: the Agreement states that nothing in it gives the WHO Secretariat authority to direct national laws or policies, such as lockdowns.

  3. Consider the following statements about the 2024 amendments to the International Health Regulations:
    1. They were adopted at the 77th World Health Assembly.
    2. They entered into force on 19 September 2025.
    3. They created a 'pandemic emergency' alert level above a PHEIC.
    4. All 196 States Parties accepted them.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Only three. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. 4 is wrong: 11 of the 196 States Parties rejected the amendments; for them the earlier version still applies.

  4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: The WHO Pandemic Agreement, though adopted in 2025, had not opened for signature by October 2026.
    Statement-II: The Agreement opens for signature only after the World Health Assembly adopts the annex on the Pathogen Access and Benefit-Sharing system.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct and II explains I: the PABS annex missed its May 2026 target and talks continue, so the treaty cannot yet be signed.

  5. The Nagoya Protocol, whose access and benefit-sharing principles inform the PABS negotiations, is a supplementary agreement to which convention?

    1. Convention on Biological Diversity
    2. United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
    3. Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species
    4. Ramsar Convention
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Convention on Biological Diversity. The Nagoya Protocol (2010) on access to genetic resources and fair sharing of benefits is under the Convention on Biological Diversity.

  6. Consider the following statements about the UN High-Level Meeting on pandemics on 25 September 2026:
    1. Its political declaration was adopted by consensus.
    2. The United States rejected the declaration.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2 only. 1 is wrong: the declaration did not win consensus and is to be taken up later. 2 is correct: the US rejected it, and the EU also withheld support.