UPSC current affairs quiz, 9 October 2026
30 Prelims-style questions on the day's news, in the formats UPSC uses (statement-based, How many, Statement-I and II), each with the answer and an explanation. Try each one before you open the answer.
GST Council recommends ending arrest powers and raising prosecution threshold to ₹5 crore
With reference to the recommendations of the 57th meeting of the GST Council, consider the following statements:
1. It recommended omitting Section 69 of the CGST Act, 2017, which deals with the power to arrest.
2. It recommended lowering the monetary threshold for prosecution from ₹5 crore to ₹1 crore.
3. Its recommendations take effect only through notifications, circulars or amendments to the law.
Which of the statements given above are correct?- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only. Statement 1 is correct: the Council recommended complete withdrawal of arrest powers by omitting Section 69. Statement 2 is wrong: the threshold is to be raised from ₹1 crore to ₹5 crore, not lowered. Statement 3 is correct: the official release says recommendations are given effect through circulars, notifications and law amendments, which alone have the force of law.
Consider the following statements about the GST Council:
1. It is chaired by the Union Finance Minister.
2. A decision needs at least three-fourths of the weighted votes of members present and voting.
3. The Centre's vote carries half of the total weight.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. 1 is correct: the Union Finance Minister chairs it. 2 is correct: Article 279A requires three-fourths of weighted votes of members present and voting. 3 is wrong: the Centre's vote carries one-third of the weight, and all States together two-thirds.
Consider the following recommendations of the 57th GST Council meeting:
1. Raising the prosecution threshold from ₹1 crore to ₹5 crore.
2. Reducing the maximum general penalty from ₹25,000 to ₹10,000.
3. Capping pre-deposit for penalty-only appeals at ₹40 crore.
4. Allowing transit States to intercept goods on routine checks.
How many of the above were recommended?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (c) Only three. 1, 2 and 3 were recommended. 4 is the opposite of what was recommended: interception needs specific intelligence and Joint Commissioner authorisation, and transit States are not to intercept goods.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Removing arrest powers under GST requires amendments to the CGST Act and the State GST Acts.
Statement-II: GST Council recommendations have persuasive value and do not bind Parliament or State legislatures.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Statement-I is correct: the release says recommendations take effect only through law amendments, notifications and circulars, and each legislature has its own GST Act. Statement-II is correct (Mohit Minerals, 2022) and explains why each legislature must act for the change to become law.
In the context of GST, an 'inverted duty structure' refers to a situation where:
- Imports are taxed at a lower rate than domestic goods
- The tax rate on inputs is higher than the tax rate on the output
- The Centre's share of GST is lower than the States' share
- A tax is levied on a tax already paid
Show answer
Answer: (b) The tax rate on inputs is higher than the tax rate on the output. An inverted duty structure arises when inputs bear a higher GST rate than the final product, so input tax credit piles up and needs a refund. Option 4 describes cascading, which GST was designed to remove.
Consider the following statements:
1. Article 246A gives both Parliament and State legislatures power to make laws on GST.
2. In Radhika Agarwal v. Union of India (2025), the Supreme Court struck down Section 69 of the CGST Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 only. 1 is correct. 2 is wrong: the Court upheld Section 69 as valid under Article 246A, subject to safeguards such as recorded reasons to believe.
Supreme Court says Jharkhand's DGP rule prima facie defies Prakash Singh, widens scrutiny
With reference to the Supreme Court's directions in Prakash Singh v. Union of India and later orders, consider the following statements:
1. A State's DGP is to be selected from the three senior-most officers empanelled by the UPSC.
2. A DGP, once selected, has a minimum tenure of two years.
3. States may appoint an 'acting' DGP while the UPSC prepares its panel.
Which of the statements given above are correct?- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. Statements 1 and 2 restate the second of the 2006 directions. Statement 3 is wrong: the Court's order of 3 July 2018 restrained all States and Union Territories from appointing any officer as acting DGP.
Which of the following are among the directions issued in Prakash Singh v. Union of India (2006)?
1. A State Security Commission in every State.
2. A Police Establishment Board to decide transfers and postings up to Deputy SP.
3. Police Complaints Authorities at State and district levels.
4. A National Judicial Commission to select DGPs.
How many of the above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (c) Only three. 1, 2 and 3 are Prakash Singh directions. 4 is invented: DGPs are empanelled by the UPSC, and the seventh direction was a National Security Commission for heads of central police organisations.
Consider the following statements about the Jharkhand DGP case heard on 8 October 2026:
1. The challenged rule allowed officers with less than six months of service left to be considered for DGP.
2. The Court struck down the rule and set aside the DGP's appointment.
3. The Court asked the amicus to examine whether other States' laws depart from Prakash Singh.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. 1 and 3 are correct. 2 is wrong: the Court only said the rule was prima facie contrary to Prakash Singh, issued notice to the DGP, and allowed the State to revisit the rule or file a counter-affidavit.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: State legislatures have the power to make laws on their police forces.
Statement-II: Police is an entry in the State List of the Seventh Schedule.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct, and the State List entry is the source of the States' law-making power on police, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.
The Supreme Court's order of 3 July 2018 in the police reforms case is best known for:
- Creating the National Police Commission
- Barring States from appointing acting DGPs
- Fixing the DGP's tenure at three years
- Transferring DGP selection to the Union Home Ministry
Show answer
Answer: (b) Barring States from appointing acting DGPs. The July 2018 order restrained States and Union Territories from appointing acting DGPs and required proposals to the UPSC three months before a vacancy. The other options are not what it ordered.
Consider the following statements:
1. Under Prakash Singh, a DGP's minimum tenure is two years.
2. The March 2019 clarification required at least two years of residual service for DGP empanelment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 only. 1 is correct. 2 is wrong: the 2019 clarification said officers with a minimum of six months of residual service should be considered; the UPSC's earlier two-year practice was set aside.
Centre to cap trade margins on 110 non-scheduled cancer drugs at 30%
With reference to drug price regulation in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Drugs (Prices Control) Order, 2013 fixes ceiling prices for scheduled formulations.
2. Manufacturers of non-scheduled formulations may raise their MRP by any amount every year.
3. The trade margin cap on anti-cancer drugs in 2019 was imposed under Paragraph 19 of the DPCO, 2013.
Which of the statements given above are correct?- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only. Statement 1 is correct: ceiling prices apply to scheduled formulations. Statement 2 is wrong: the MRP of a non-scheduled formulation may be raised by no more than 10% over the preceding 12 months. Statement 3 is correct: the NPPA used its extraordinary powers under Paragraph 19 in February 2019.
Consider the following statements about the planned trade margin cap on cancer drugs:
1. It will cover only generic, non-patented medicines.
2. It caps the margin added between the manufacturer's first sale and the MRP.
3. Manufacturers will be required to maintain current production levels.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. 1 is wrong: it covers branded and generic, domestic and imported, patented and non-patented drugs; 35 of about 110 are patented. 2 and 3 are correct as reported.
Consider the following statements about the Drugs (Prices Control) Order, 2013:
1. It is issued under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955.
2. Scheduled formulations are drawn from the National List of Essential Medicines.
3. The ceiling price includes a 16% retailer margin.
4. Non-scheduled formulations have no limit on annual MRP increases.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (c) Only three. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. 4 is wrong: non-scheduled formulations may not raise MRP by more than 10% over the preceding 12 months.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The government can cap trade margins on non-scheduled cancer drugs even though they are outside the DPCO ceiling price list.
Statement-II: Paragraph 19 of DPCO 2013 empowers the government to fix prices of any drug in extraordinary circumstances in the public interest.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct, and the Paragraph 19 power is what allowed the 2019 cap on 42 non-scheduled cancer drugs, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.
The National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority functions under which of the following?
- Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
- Department of Pharmaceuticals
- Department of Consumer Affairs
- Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation
Show answer
Answer: (b) Department of Pharmaceuticals. The NPPA is attached to the Department of Pharmaceuticals in the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers. Drug quality regulation, not pricing, lies with the CDSCO under the Health Ministry.
Consider the following statements:
1. The 2019 trade margin cap on cancer drugs was 30%.
2. The 2026 plan is expected to reduce MRPs by up to 70%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct: the 2019 pilot capped trade margins at 30%, and officials expect MRPs to fall by up to 70% under the 2026 plan.
WMO says El Niño will peak in December, with record Pacific warming forecast
With reference to the Niño 3.4 index, which is used to track El Niño, consider the following statements:
1. It measures the sea-surface temperature anomaly in the central equatorial Pacific Ocean.
2. Its previous record value was set in the 1997-98 El Niño.
3. The WMO forecasts its October to December 2026 average to be the highest since observations began.
Which of the statements given above are correct?- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the WMO puts the previous record at +2.6°C in November 2015 to January 2016. Statement 3 is correct: the forecast of about +3.7°C would be the highest since observations began.
Consider the following statements about El Niño:
1. Trade winds over the equatorial Pacific weaken.
2. Warm surface water spreads towards the central and eastern Pacific.
3. Upwelling of cold water off South America strengthens.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. 1 and 2 are correct. 3 is wrong: during El Niño, the upwelling of cold water off South America weakens, which is why the eastern Pacific warms.
Consider the following statements about the WMO's October to December 2026 outlook:
1. El Niño is expected to peak in December 2026.
2. Drier than normal conditions are likely over the Indian subcontinent.
3. A negative Indian Ocean Dipole is expected to peak in October.
4. The forecast draws on a consensus of thirteen centres.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (c) Only three. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. 3 is wrong: the WMO expects a positive IOD to peak in October and then decline.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: A strong El Niño does not always produce a drought in India.
Statement-II: A positive Indian Ocean Dipole can partly offset El Niño's drying effect on Indian rainfall.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct, and the offsetting role of a positive IOD is one reason why El Niño years do not always become drought years in India, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.
The Niño 3.4 region, used to monitor El Niño, lies in the:
- Western equatorial Indian Ocean
- Central equatorial Pacific Ocean
- Eastern equatorial Atlantic Ocean
- South China Sea
Show answer
Answer: (b) Central equatorial Pacific Ocean. Niño 3.4 covers 5°N to 5°S and 170°W to 120°W, in the central equatorial Pacific.
Consider the following statements:
1. The WMO is a specialised agency of the United Nations.
2. The WMO's seasonal outlooks replace national forecasts issued by the India Meteorological Department.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 only. 1 is correct. 2 is wrong: the WMO says its seasonal likelihoods are not substitutes for national or local forecasts.
Explained: Why stubble fires in Punjab and Haryana keep coming back
With reference to the Punjab Preservation of Subsoil Water Act, 2009, consider the following statements:
1. It bars sowing of paddy nurseries before 10 May.
2. It fixes 1 June as the earliest date for transplanting paddy.
3. It provides for a penalty calculated per hectare for each month of violation.
Which of the statements given above are correct?- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only. Statement 1 is correct (Section 3(1)). Statement 2 is wrong: the Act does not fix a transplanting date; it bars transplanting before a date notified by the State. Statement 3 is correct: the penalty is ₹10,000 for every month or part of it, per hectare.
Consider the following statements about the Punjab Preservation of Subsoil Water Act, 2009:
1. Its main aim is to reduce groundwater extraction.
2. It bars sowing of paddy nurseries before 10 May.
3. It prohibits stubble burning directly.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. 1 and 2 are correct. 3 is wrong: the Act regulates paddy sowing and transplanting dates; it does not ban stubble burning. Its effect on burning is indirect, through the later harvest.
Which of the following are in-situ methods of managing paddy residue?
1. Using a Happy Seeder to sow wheat through stubble
2. Baling straw for a compressed biogas plant
3. Growing short-duration rice varieties
4. Selling straw to a biomass power plant
How many of the above are in-situ methods?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. 1 and 3 handle the problem in the field, so they are in-situ. 2 and 4 take straw away for use elsewhere, which is ex-situ.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Official satellite counts may understate stubble fires in Punjab and Haryana.
Statement-II: Polar-orbiting satellites pass over a given place only at fixed times each day.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. Because polar satellites pass at fixed times (early afternoon), fires lit later, as the ISRO SAC study found, can be missed, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.
The Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas is:
- An executive body created by a notification of the Environment Ministry
- A statutory body created by an Act of Parliament
- A constitutional body under Article 48A
- A committee of the National Green Tribunal
Show answer
Answer: (b) A statutory body created by an Act of Parliament. The CAQM was constituted under an Act of Parliament in 2021, making it a statutory body. Article 48A is a Directive Principle on the environment and creates no body.
Consider the following statements:
1. Delayed paddy transplanting shortens the time available between paddy harvest and wheat sowing.
2. Combine harvesters cut the plant at ground level, leaving no stubble.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 only. 1 is correct. 2 is wrong: combine harvesters leave the lower part of the plant standing, which is the stubble farmers burn.