UPSC current affairs quiz, 11 October 2026
24 Prelims-style questions on the day's news, in the formats UPSC uses (statement-based, How many, Statement-I and II), each with the answer and an explanation. Try each one before you open the answer.
UN rights office flags mass detentions at Delhi protest; India calls it 'interference'
With reference to the right to assemble under the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
1. The right to assemble peaceably and without arms is guaranteed to all citizens under Article 19(1)(b).
2. Under Article 19(3), reasonable restrictions on this right may be imposed in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India or public order.
3. Under Article 19(3), reasonable restrictions on this right may be imposed in the interests of decency or morality.
Which of the statements given above are correct?- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. Statement 1 is correct: Article 19(1)(b) gives citizens the right to assemble peaceably and without arms. Statement 2 is correct: Article 19(3) names the sovereignty and integrity of India and public order. Statement 3 is wrong: decency or morality is a ground for restricting speech under Article 19(2), not assembly under Article 19(3).
Consider the following statements about Section 163 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS):
1. It replaced Section 144 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.
2. An order under it can be issued only by the Commissioner of Police.
3. The State Government can extend an order beyond the normal period, by up to six months.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: a District Magistrate, Sub-Divisional Magistrate or an Executive Magistrate specially empowered by the State Government issues the order. Statement 3 is correct: the State Government can extend it by up to six months.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Under the Constitution of India, the right to assemble cannot be restricted on the ground of decency or morality.
Statement-II: Article 19(3) permits restrictions on the right to assemble only in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India or public order.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. Decency or morality appears in Article 19(2), which governs speech. Article 19(3), which governs assembly, lists only sovereignty and integrity of India and public order, which is why decency is not a ground for restricting assembly.
Consider the following statements about the Office of the High Commissioner for Human Rights (OHCHR):
1. It was established by a resolution of the UN General Assembly in 1993.
2. Its findings on a member state are legally binding on that state.
3. It works to promote and protect the rights in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is correct: resolution 48/141 of December 1993. Statement 2 is wrong: its statements are not binding; it speaks out on violations and advises governments. Statement 3 is correct: its mandate covers the full range of rights in the Universal Declaration.
In a ruling reported on 10 October 2026, the Calcutta High Court quashed a case against six School Service Commission job aspirants. Which of the following was NOT among the provisions they had been charged under?
- Section 143 of the IPC (unlawful assembly)
- Section 188 of the IPC (disobedience of an order of a public servant)
- Section 124A of the IPC (sedition)
- Section 51 of the Disaster Management Act, 2005
Show answer
Answer: (c) Section 124A of the IPC (sedition). The FIR invoked Sections 143, 188, 341, 269 and 270 of the IPC and Section 51 of the Disaster Management Act, 2005. Sedition (Section 124A) was not among the charges.
With reference to the CJP protest in Delhi on 10 October 2026, consider the following statements:
1. The protest demanded the resignation of the Chief Election Commissioner.
2. All Delhi Metro services were shut for the day.
3. Mobile internet was suspended within a 4 km radius of the Janpath and Kartavya Path crossing.
Which of the statements given above are correct?- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only. Statement 1 is correct: the demand was the CEC's resignation over the SIR. Statement 2 is wrong: entry and exit were shut at 45 stations, after the Supreme Court barred a complete closure of Metro and rail services. Statement 3 is correct.
Madras HC: private institutions and employers in Tamil Nadu cannot compel caste disclosure
Consider the following statements:
1. Article 15(1) of the Constitution of India prohibits the State from discriminating against any citizen on grounds only of caste.
2. Article 17 of the Constitution of India abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form.
3. The Supreme Court's judgment in K.S. Puttaswamy (2017) placed the right to privacy under Article 19.
Which of the statements given above are correct?- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. Statements 1 and 2 restate Articles 15(1) and 17. Statement 3 is wrong: Puttaswamy held privacy to be an intrinsic part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21.
With reference to the Madras High Court ruling reported on 10 October 2026, consider the following statements:
1. It held that private educational institutions and private employers in Tamil Nadu cannot mandatorily collect caste details.
2. It directed that Transfer Certificates in Tamil Nadu must never mention a student's caste.
3. It directed the State to give wide publicity to G.O.Ms.No.205 of 2000.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the court declined a blanket direction on Transfer Certificates because some people may want caste recorded; those who do not want it need not disclose it.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Collecting caste details is not barred where a statute specifically requires them.
Statement-II: Article 15(4) allows the State to make special provisions for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. Special provisions such as reservation under Article 15(4) require verified caste status, which is why caste data can still be sought where the law requires it. Statement-II explains Statement-I.
Consider the following statements about K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017):
1. It was decided by a nine-judge Bench.
2. It overruled M.P. Sharma (1954).
3. It held that the right to privacy is absolute and admits no restrictions.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: the Court held privacy is not absolute; a restriction must be provided by law, serve a legitimate aim and be proportionate.
Which Article of the Constitution of India states that the enforcement of any disability arising out of 'Untouchability' shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law?
- Article 15
- Article 16
- Article 17
- Article 46
Show answer
Answer: (c) Article 17. Article 17 abolishes untouchability, forbids its practice in any form and makes enforcement of any disability arising from it a punishable offence.
Consider the following statements about Article 15 of the Constitution of India:
1. Clause (1) prohibits the State from discriminating against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
2. Clause (2) covers access to shops, public restaurants, hotels and places of public entertainment.
3. The Article lists 'descent' among the prohibited grounds.
Which of the statements given above are correct?- 1 only
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only. Statements 1 and 2 reflect the text of Article 15(1) and 15(2). Statement 3 is wrong: 'descent' appears in Article 16(2), on employment or office under the State, not in Article 15.
JJ Act at ten: CJI seeks trained defence lawyers for children and stigma-free records
With reference to the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, consider the following statements:
1. A Juvenile Justice Board includes two social workers, at least one of whom must be a woman.
2. A child aged 16 to 18 alleged to have committed a heinous offence may be tried as an adult after a preliminary assessment.
3. After the 2021 amendment, adoption orders are issued by the Child Welfare Committee.
Which of the statements given above are correct?- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. Statement 1 is correct under Section 4. Statement 2 is correct: the Board makes a preliminary assessment and may transfer the case to a Children's Court. Statement 3 is wrong: the 2021 amendment gave the power to issue adoption orders to District Magistrates, including Additional District Magistrates.
Consider the following statements about the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015:
1. It replaced the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2000.
2. It provides for a Child Welfare Committee in each district.
3. It was passed by both Houses of Parliament in May 2015.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: the Lok Sabha passed it on 7 May 2015, but the Rajya Sabha passed it on 22 December 2015.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Under the JJ Act, 2015, a child aged 16 to 18 accused of a heinous offence is not automatically tried as an adult.
Statement-II: The Juvenile Justice Board must first conduct a preliminary assessment before such a case can be transferred to the Children's Court.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct, and the preliminary assessment requirement is the reason trial as an adult is not automatic.
Consider the following statements about the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Amendment, 2021:
1. It shifted the power to issue adoption orders from civil courts to District Magistrates.
2. It provided that an appeal against an adoption order lies to the Divisional Commissioner.
3. It abolished Child Welfare Committees.
4. It responded in part to the Supreme Court's ruling in Shilpa Mittal v. State of NCT of Delhi.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (c) Only three. Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct: adoption orders moved to DMs (including ADMs), appeals lie to the Divisional Commissioner within 30 days, and the redefinition of serious offences followed Shilpa Mittal (2020). Statement 3 is wrong: Child Welfare Committees continue.
According to the India Justice Report (November 2025) cited at the Supreme Court consultation on 10 October 2026, roughly what share of cases before Juvenile Justice Boards were pending?
- About 24%
- About 45%
- About 55%
- About 75%
Show answer
Answer: (c) About 55%. Of 1,00,904 cases before 362 Boards, 45,097 were disposed of, leaving about 55% pending. The 24% figure refers to Boards working without a full bench.
Which of the following were recommended by the Chief Justice of India at the JJ Act ten-year consultation on 10 October 2026?
1. A separate wing of trained defence counsel for children
2. Lowering the age of criminal responsibility to 14 years
3. Timely destruction of old records of children in conflict with law
Select the correct answer using the code given below:- 1 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only. The CJI proposed a dedicated wing of trained defence lawyers and timely destruction of records, and asked that children's names be kept off the internet. He did not propose lowering any age limit; his theme was restoration, not retribution.
Goyal says India-US trade pact will be finalised keeping 'changed circumstances' in mind
With reference to recent changes in United States tariff law, consider the following statements:
1. In February 2026, the US Supreme Court held that the International Emergency Economic Powers Act did not authorise broad reciprocal tariffs.
2. Section 122 of the US Trade Act of 1974 allows a temporary import surcharge for up to 150 days.
3. The US Supreme Court's ruling also ended all tariffs imposed under Section 232 on steel and aluminium.
Which of the statements given above are correct?- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. Statement 1 is correct: the ruling of 20 February 2026 was 6-3. Statement 2 is correct: the 10% global tariff was imposed under Section 122 for up to 150 days. Statement 3 is wrong: Section 232 sector tariffs, including 50% on steel and aluminium, continued.
Consider the following statements about the India-US joint statement of February 2026:
1. The US was to apply a reciprocal tariff of 18% on Indian goods.
2. India committed to eliminate tariffs on all US agricultural products.
3. India expressed an intention to purchase $500 billion of US goods over five years.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is wrong: India was to eliminate or reduce tariffs on all US industrial goods and on a wide range, not all, of US food and farm products.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: After February 2026, finalising a country-specific preferential US tariff for India required a new legal route.
Statement-II: The US Supreme Court held that the International Emergency Economic Powers Act did not authorise the President to impose broad reciprocal tariffs.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. The reciprocal tariffs, including the 18% rate offered to India, rested on IEEPA; once that basis fell, preferential terms needed another legal mechanism.
With reference to US trade law, consider the following:
1. Section 122 of the Trade Act of 1974
2. Section 232 of the Trade Expansion Act of 1962
3. International Emergency Economic Powers Act of 1977
4. Section 301 of the Trade Act of 1974
How many of the above were held by the US Supreme Court in February 2026 NOT to authorise broad reciprocal tariffs?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (a) Only one. Only IEEPA was the subject of the 20 February 2026 ruling. Section 122 was used right after to impose a 10% tariff, and Section 232 sector tariffs continued. Other laws remain available, though they need investigations and apply to specific sectors.
On 10 October 2026, Piyush Goyal described the state of the India-US trade deal as:
- Talks suspended until the US elections
- Concluded in substance, with the fine print being worked upon
- Converted into a full free trade agreement
- Replaced by a WTO dispute
Show answer
Answer: (b) Concluded in substance, with the fine print being worked upon. He said: "We have concluded the deal. We have nothing more to add, to give or take. The fine print is being worked upon."
Which of the following trade engagements did Piyush Goyal mention on 10 October 2026?
1. Talks with Mexico to be launched the following week
2. A visit by the UK trade minister for the JETCO meeting
3. Talks with the Gulf Cooperation Council
Select the correct answer using the code given below:- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3. All three were mentioned: Mexico talks to be launched next week, the UK minister to attend the India-UK Joint Economic and Trade Committee (JETCO), and ongoing talks with the GCC, Israel, Chile and the EAEU.