UPSC current affairs quiz, 10 October 2026
30 Prelims-style questions on the day's news, in the formats UPSC uses (statement-based, How many, Statement-I and II), each with the answer and an explanation. Try each one before you open the answer.
MP High Court strikes down 27% OBC quota, restores 14% to keep the 50% ceiling
With reference to the Supreme Court's judgment in Indra Sawhney v. Union of India (1992), consider the following statements:
1. It upheld 27% reservation for Other Backward Classes in Central government posts.
2. It held that reservations should not normally exceed 50%, save in extraordinary situations.
3. It held that the 'creamy layer' among backward classes must be excluded from reservation.
Which of the statements given above are correct?- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3. All three are correct. The nine-judge Bench upheld the 27% OBC quota in Central services, set a 50% ceiling that may be crossed only in extraordinary situations, and directed exclusion of the creamy layer. The Madhya Pradesh High Court applied the second rule in October 2026.
Consider the following statements about the Madhya Pradesh High Court's ruling of 9 October 2026:
1. It struck down the 2019 increase in OBC reservation from 14% to 27%.
2. It ordered the removal of all OBC candidates appointed under the 27% quota since 2019.
3. It directed that posts withheld since 29 September 2022 be filled from the unreserved category within three months.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. 1 is correct. 2 is wrong: appointments made up to 29 September 2022 are protected and the excess will be adjusted over the next three recruitment drives. 3 is correct: the 13% withheld posts go to the unreserved category within three months. Two statements are correct.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Madhya Pradesh High Court held that the State's 27% OBC quota could not stand.
Statement-II: The court found that no extraordinary circumstances existed to justify crossing the 50% ceiling set by the Supreme Court.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct, and II is the reason for I: SC 16% plus ST 20% plus OBC 27% would have reached 63%, and without extraordinary circumstances the court held the 50% ceiling must be followed.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India fixes 50% as the maximum limit for reservation in public employment.
2. Article 16(4) permits reservation for backward classes not adequately represented in the services under the State.
3. The 10% EWS quota was introduced by the 103rd Constitutional Amendment.
4. In Janhit Abhiyan (2022), the Supreme Court struck down the EWS quota for breaching the 50% ceiling.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. 1 is wrong: the 50% limit is judge-made, from Indra Sawhney (1992); the Constitution sets no percentage. 2 is correct. 3 is correct. 4 is wrong: the Court upheld the EWS quota by 3:2. Two statements are correct.
Which one of the following was the subject of the Supreme Court's judgment in Jaishri Laxmanrao Patil (2021)?
- Reservation in promotions for Scheduled Castes
- Reservation for the Maratha community in Maharashtra
- Sub-classification of Scheduled Castes
- Reservation for economically weaker sections
Show answer
Answer: (b) Reservation for the Maratha community in Maharashtra. The five-judge Bench struck down the Maratha quota under a 2018 Maharashtra law because no extraordinary circumstances justified crossing 50%, and declined to refer Indra Sawhney to a larger Bench.
With reference to Indra Sawhney v. Union of India (1992), which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It held that caste can be a criterion for identifying backward classes.
2. It directed exclusion of the creamy layer from backward class reservation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct. The Court accepted caste as a relevant criterion for identifying backward classes and directed that the creamy layer be excluded. (It also held that Article 16(4) does not permit reservation in promotions; Parliament later added Article 16(4A) for SCs and STs.)
Supreme Court calls blanket Metro and train shutdown before Delhi protest 'overreaching'
Under the Constitution of India, reasonable restrictions on the right to assemble peaceably and without arms can be imposed in the interests of which of the following?
1. Sovereignty and integrity of India
2. Public order
3. Decency or morality
Select the correct answer using the code given below.- 1 and 2 only
- 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. Article 19(3) allows reasonable restrictions on Article 19(1)(b) only in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India or public order. Decency or morality is a ground under Article 19(2) for speech, not for assembly.
Consider the following statements:
1. The right to assemble peaceably and without arms is guaranteed under Article 19(1)(b).
2. Restrictions on the right to assemble can be imposed in the interests of defamation.
3. The right to move freely throughout the territory of India is guaranteed under Article 19(1)(d).
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. 1 is correct. 2 is wrong: Article 19(3) allows restrictions on assembly only for sovereignty and integrity of India or public order; defamation is a ground under Article 19(2) for speech. 3 is correct. Two statements are correct.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Supreme Court in October 2026 said that a complete prohibition of Delhi Metro movement before a protest should not be imposed.
Statement-II: The Supreme Court held that the right to protest is absolute and cannot be regulated.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. Statement-I is correct. Statement-II is wrong: the court said regulating transport, such as reducing train frequency, could be justified; only a complete ban was overreaching. The right to assemble is subject to Article 19(3).
Consider the following pairs:
1. Section 163 of the BNSS : formerly Section 144 of the CrPC
2. Section 223 of the BNS : formerly Section 188 of the IPC
3. Article 226 : writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
4. Article 19(3) : restrictions on the right to assemble
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (c) Only three. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. 3 is wrong: Article 226 gives writ jurisdiction to High Courts; the Supreme Court's is Article 32. Three pairs are correct.
Which one of the following cases is associated with the Supreme Court's view that protests at Jantar Mantar should be regulated rather than banned outright?
- Anuradha Bhasin v. Union of India
- Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan v. Union of India
- Amit Sahni v. Commissioner of Police
- K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India
Show answer
Answer: (b) Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan v. Union of India. Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan (2018) dealt with the ban on protests at Jantar Mantar and Boat Club. Anuradha Bhasin (2020) dealt with communication shutdowns and Section 144; Amit Sahni (2020) with the Shaheen Bagh road blockade; Puttaswamy (2017) with privacy.
With reference to the doctrine of proportionality as applied by Indian courts, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. A restriction must have a rational connection to a legitimate aim.
2. The State must show there is no less restrictive measure that would achieve the aim as well.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct. The test adopted in Modern Dental College (2016) and K.S. Puttaswamy (2017) asks for a legitimate aim, a rational connection, necessity (no less restrictive alternative) and balancing.
Critical minerals stockpiling policy likely within a month, says Mines Secretary
With reference to the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM), consider the following statements:
1. It was approved by the Union Cabinet in January 2025 with an outlay of ₹34,300 crore over seven years.
2. The entire outlay is to be met from the Union Budget.
3. Development of a domestic critical mineral stockpile is one of its components.
Which of the statements given above are correct?- 1 and 2 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only. 1 is correct (approved 29 January 2025). 2 is wrong: government spending is ₹16,300 crore and ₹18,000 crore is expected from PSUs and others. 3 is correct: a critical mineral stockpile is a listed component.
Consider the following statements about the proposed critical minerals stockpiling policy:
1. It is expected to lay down release protocols, including quantities and eligible recipients.
2. It is meant to support strategic sectors such as defence, advanced electronics and aerospace.
3. It will replace the National Critical Mineral Mission.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. 1 and 2 are correct, per the Mines Secretary's remarks on 9 October 2026. 3 is wrong: the stockpile is a component of the National Critical Mineral Mission, not a replacement. Two statements are correct.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: India is building a national stockpile of critical minerals.
Statement-II: It is not feasible for India to mine every critical mineral domestically.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct and II explains I: the Mines Secretary said that since not every mineral can be mined at home, India needs an alternative mechanism, which is why it is stockpiling.
Consider the following:
1. Exploration in India and offshore areas
2. Support for acquiring mineral assets abroad
3. A domestic critical mineral stockpile
4. Recycling of critical minerals
How many of the above are components of the National Critical Mineral Mission?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (d) All four. All four are listed components of the NCMM approved on 29 January 2025, along with processing parks, a fast-track approval process and research.
Khanij Bidesh India Ltd (KABIL) has acquired an area for lithium exploration in which one of the following countries?
- Chile
- Bolivia
- Argentina
- Australia
Show answer
Answer: (c) Argentina. KABIL acquired about 15,703 hectares in Catamarca province, Argentina, for lithium exploration and mining.
With reference to the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2023, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It empowered the Central government to exclusively auction mining leases and composite licences for certain critical minerals.
2. It made India a member of the Minerals Security Partnership.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 only. 1 is correct. 2 is wrong: joining the Minerals Security Partnership is a diplomatic step, not something done by a domestic mining law.
Op-ed: WHO's first child obesity guidelines call for action beyond the clinic
With reference to the World Health Organization's guidelines on child and adolescent obesity issued in October 2026, consider the following statements:
1. Pharmacological treatment is not recommended for children aged 0 to 9 years.
2. Bariatric surgery may be considered for adolescents with severe obesity under strict conditions.
3. Digital health interventions are strongly recommended without any need for parental supervision.
Which of the statements given above are correct?- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. 1 and 2 are correct. 3 is wrong: digital health interventions are only conditionally recommended, and with parent or caregiver supervision.
Consider the following statements about WHO's guidelines on child and adolescent obesity (October 2026):
1. WHO describes obesity as a chronic, relapsing disease.
2. Structured diet, physical activity and behaviour-change interventions are strongly recommended.
3. WHO says treatment alone can reverse the global rise in child obesity.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. 1 and 2 are correct. 3 is wrong: WHO says treatment alone cannot reverse the rise and calls for affordable healthy diets and physical activity. Two statements are correct.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: WHO does not recommend weight-loss medicines for children aged 0 to 9 years.
Statement-II: WHO holds that the foundation of obesity care for children and adolescents is structured diet, physical activity and behaviour change rather than medicine or surgery.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct and II explains I: because WHO places lifestyle interventions at the base of care, it rules out medicines, surgery and devices for the youngest children and reserves medicines for adolescents only after lifestyle programmes fail.
Consider the following:
1. Stunting
2. Wasting
3. Anaemia
4. Obesity
How many of the above are forms of malnutrition that together can make up a 'double burden of malnutrition'?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (d) All four. All four. Stunting, wasting and micronutrient deficiencies such as anaemia are forms of undernutrition; obesity is a form of overnutrition. The double burden is their coexistence.
Which one of the following correctly describes how WHO defines obesity in children and adolescents aged 5 to 19 years?
- BMI of 30 or more
- BMI-for-age more than two standard deviations above the WHO growth reference median
- Weight more than 20% above ideal weight for height
- Waist circumference above 90 cm
Show answer
Answer: (b) BMI-for-age more than two standard deviations above the WHO growth reference median. For ages 5 to 19, WHO uses BMI-for-age: more than one standard deviation above the median is overweight and more than two is obesity. A BMI of 30 is the adult cut-off.
Which of the following statements about the four main behavioural risk factors for non-communicable diseases identified by WHO is/are correct?
1. Physical inactivity is one of them.
2. Unhealthy diet is one of them.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct. WHO's four main behavioural risk factors are tobacco use, physical inactivity, harmful use of alcohol and unhealthy diets.
US sanctions the International Criminal Court itself, hours after Navi Pillay wins Nobel
Which of the following crimes fall within the jurisdiction of the International Criminal Court under the Rome Statute?
1. Genocide
2. Crimes against humanity
3. War crimes
4. Crime of aggression
Select the correct answer using the code given below.- 1, 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 2 only
- 2, 3 and 4 only
- 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4. The Rome Statute lists four core crimes: genocide, crimes against humanity, war crimes and the crime of aggression. The court's jurisdiction over aggression was activated in 2018.
Consider the following statements about the International Criminal Court:
1. It was established under the Rome Statute, which entered into force in 2002.
2. It settles disputes between States, while the International Court of Justice tries individuals.
3. India is a State Party to the Rome Statute.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (a) Only one. Only 1 is correct. 2 reverses the roles: the ICC tries individuals and the ICJ settles disputes between States. 3 is wrong: India is not a party.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The ICC may decline a case even when a crime within its jurisdiction has been committed.
Statement-II: Under the principle of complementarity, a case is inadmissible if a State with jurisdiction is genuinely investigating or prosecuting it.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct and II explains I: the ICC is a court of last resort and steps back when national proceedings are genuine.
Consider the following statements about the U.S. sanctions on the ICC announced on 9 October 2026:
1. They block the court's property and interests in property in the United States.
2. They bar contributions of funds, goods or services to or for the benefit of the court.
3. They provide temporary exemptions for maintenance, technology and pension services.
4. They were the first U.S. sanctions ever imposed on any ICC official.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (c) Only three. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. 4 is wrong: the U.S. had sanctioned the ICC Prosecutor and judges in 2025 under Executive Order 14203, and earlier officials in 2020. Three statements are correct.
Navi Pillay, winner of the 2026 Nobel Peace Prize, served on which of the following?
1. International Criminal Tribunal for Rwanda
2. International Criminal Court
3. Office of the UN High Commissioner for Human Rights, as High Commissioner
Select the correct answer using the code given below.- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3. All three: she served on the ICTR, sat as an ICC judge, and was UN High Commissioner for Human Rights from 2008 to 2014.
With reference to the International Court of Justice, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations.
2. Its judges are elected for a term of nine years.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Both are correct. The ICJ, set up under the UN Charter in 1945, is the UN's principal judicial organ; its 15 judges serve nine-year terms.