UPSC current affairs quiz, 27 October 2026

With reference to the Election Commission of India, consider the following statements:
1. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
2. An Election Commissioner can be removed from office only on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.
3. Under the 2023 Act, the Chief Justice of India is a member of the Selection Committee that recommends the Chief Election Commissioner.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Consider the following statements about the CEC and Other Election Commissioners Act, 2023:
1. A Search Committee headed by the Minister of Law and Justice prepares a panel of five persons.
2. The CEC and Election Commissioners hold office for six years or until 65 years of age, whichever is earlier.
3. An Election Commissioner who becomes CEC can serve up to six years as CEC in addition to his time as Election Commissioner.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Chief Election Commissioner cannot be removed by an executive order of the Union government.
Statement-II: Article 324(5) provides that the Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed except in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

With reference to the removal of a Supreme Court judge under Article 124(4), consider the following:
1. An address by each House of Parliament in the same session
2. Support of a majority of the total membership of each House
3. Support of two-thirds of members present and voting in each House
4. Prior consent of the Chief Justice of India
How many of the above are constitutional requirements?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Which one of the following was held by the Supreme Court in T.N. Seshan v. Union of India (1995)?

1. The Election Commission must always be a single-member body
2. The CEC's removal protection makes him superior to other Election Commissioners
3. A multi-member Commission deciding by majority is valid, and the CEC is not superior to other Commissioners
4. Election Commissioners can be removed only by impeachment

Consider the following statements about the ECI's affidavit of October 2026:
1. It argues that newspaper reports cannot be treated as evidence.
2. It says Form 6 was amended by the Commission with the approval of all three members.
3. It says the online application has been split into Form 6 and a separate declaration from 21 October.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

With reference to the amendment to the Central Motor Vehicles Rules notified in October 2026, consider the following statements:
1. It recognises E100 as a fuel for vehicles certified by manufacturers as flex-fuel vehicles.
2. It permits all vehicles approved for E20 to run on E85.
3. It requires owners of existing petrol vehicles to convert them to flex-fuel within a deadline.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Consider the following statements about the October 2026 amendment:
1. It was made to the Central Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989.
2. It allows E85 and E100 only in vehicles designed and certified for them.
3. It raises the weight limit for the light petrol and diesel vehicles covered by the testing provisions to 3,500 kg.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: A car approved only for E20 should not be filled with E100.
Statement-II: The amended rules allow E85 and E100 only in vehicles specifically designed and certified for them by manufacturers.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

According to India's National Policy on Biofuels, consider the following as feedstocks for ethanol:
1. Sugar beet
2. Damaged food grains unfit for human consumption
3. Rotten potatoes
4. Cassava
How many of the above are permitted?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

The June 2022 amendment to the National Policy on Biofuels, 2018:

1. Abolished ethanol blending targets
2. Advanced the target of 20% ethanol blending in petrol from 2030 to 2025-26
3. Set a target of 100% ethanol in all cars by 2030
4. Banned the use of grain for ethanol

Consider the following statements:
1. A flex-fuel vehicle can run on petrol, ethanol or a blend of the two.
2. Under the new rules, owners of existing petrol cars must shift to E100.
3. India's ethanol production was over 660 crore litres in 2025, according to government figures.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

With reference to the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC), consider the following statements:
1. It is chaired by the Union Defence Minister.
2. An Acceptance of Necessity (AoN) granted by it amounts to a signed contract with the vendor.
3. It was set up in 2001 following the Group of Ministers' recommendations after the Kargil War.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Consider the following items approved by the DAC on 26 October 2026:
1. Active Offboard Decoy System for the Navy
2. Mobile X-Band Doppler Weather Radar System for the Air Force
3. Platform-based Counter Unmanned Aerial System for the Army
How many of the above were approved?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: A large AoN figure approved by the DAC does not mean that amount has been spent.
Statement-II: AoN is an in-principle approval that is followed by tendering, trials, negotiations and the signing of contracts.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Consider the following about the DAC:
1. The Chief of Defence Staff is a member.
2. It is chaired by the Prime Minister.
3. It accords AoN to capital acquisition proposals.
4. It approves the long-term perspective plan for the forces in principle.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

A 'kamikaze drone', approved for the Army by the DAC, is best described as:

1. A drone that only carries surveillance cameras
2. A drone that lays mines from the air
3. A drone that can loiter over an area and then dive onto a target, destroying itself
4. A drone used only to jam enemy radio signals

With reference to the DAC meeting of 26 October 2026, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. About 82% of the procurement is to be made from Indian industry.
2. Light Multi Role Helicopters were approved for both the Army and the Air Force.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Which of the following are autonomous boards under the National Medical Commission Act, 2019?
1. Under-Graduate Medical Education Board
2. Medical Assessment and Rating Board
3. Ethics and Medical Registration Board
4. National Board of Examinations in Medical Sciences
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 3 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Consider the following statements about the de-notification of MSMER-2023:
1. The Annual Disclosure Report requirement has also been withdrawn.
2. The NMC says the regulations overlapped with the functions of the Medical Assessment and Rating Board.
3. Actions already taken under MSMER-2023 are preserved.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Hindu's editorial argues that withdrawing MSMER-2023 weakens action against individuals who falsify college records.
Statement-II: MSMER-2023 allowed fines on faculty, deans and doctors for false declarations or records.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Consider the following penalties:
1. Fine of up to ₹1 crore per violation on an institution
2. Reduction of student intake in later years
3. Withdrawal of accreditation for up to five academic years
4. Imprisonment of the college's dean ordered by the NMC
How many of the above were provided for under MSMER-2023?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Which one of the following is correct about the National Medical Commission?

1. It was set up under the Indian Medical Council Act, 1956
2. It was constituted on 25 September 2020 under the NMC Act, 2019
3. It is a constitutional body under Article 47
4. It has two autonomous boards

With reference to the editorial's criticism, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It argues that the whole regulation was scrapped instead of only the overlapping part.
2. It notes that MARB can no longer fine institutions at all.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

With reference to India's cybersecurity framework, consider the following statements:
1. The National Critical Information Infrastructure Protection Centre is a unit of the National Technical Research Organisation.
2. CERT-In's 2022 directions require cyber incidents to be reported within 24 hours of being noticed.
3. NCIIPC derives its legal basis from Section 70A of the Information Technology Act, 2000.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Consider the following statements about the Kudankulam leak reported in 2026:
1. The files were taken from a server hosted by a third-party data centre.
2. NPCIL said the files related to the reactors' core control systems.
3. The leaked material reportedly included records of a 2024 joint inspection.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Keeping a plant's control network physically isolated from the internet does not by itself guarantee its safety.
Statement-II: Stuxnet was introduced into Iran's Natanz facility through infected USB drives.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Consider the following about CERT-In's directions of 28 April 2022:
1. They were issued under Section 70B(6) of the IT Act, 2000.
2. Cyber incidents must be reported within six hours.
3. Logs of ICT systems must be kept for 180 days within India.
4. They apply only to government departments.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

'Double extortion' in a ransomware attack means:

1. Attacking the same victim twice in one year
2. Encrypting or stealing data and also threatening to publish it unless paid
3. Demanding ransom from both a company and its insurer by law
4. Using two different malware strains at once

Why does the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 offer limited cover in a leak like Kudankulam's?

1. It applies only to government data
2. It covers digital personal data, so technical drawings without personal data largely fall outside it
3. It has been struck down by the Supreme Court
4. It applies only to data stored outside India