UPSC current affairs quiz, 15 September 2026
30 Prelims-style questions on the day's news, in the formats UPSC uses (statement-based, How many, Statement-I and II), each with the answer and an explanation. Try each one before you open the answer.
Hindi Diwas: how the Constituent Assembly settled India's language question
With reference to the official language provisions of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements is correct?
- The Constitution declares Hindi to be the national language of India.
- Article 343 prescribes the Devanagari form of numerals as the only numerals for official purposes of the Union.
- Article 351 directs the Union to develop Hindi by drawing for its vocabulary primarily on Sanskrit and secondarily on other languages.
- Article 348 requires all proceedings of the Supreme Court to be conducted in Hindi from 1965.
Show answer
Answer: (c) Article 351 directs the Union to develop Hindi by drawing for its vocabulary primarily on Sanskrit and secondarily on other languages.. The Constitution uses only the term 'official language' and names no national language. Article 343(1) prescribes the international form of Indian numerals; Devanagari numerals may be used only if authorised by the President (during the first 15 years) or by Parliament by law. Article 351 asks the Union to draw 'primarily on Sanskrit and secondarily on other languages'. Article 348 keeps English for Supreme Court and High Court proceedings until Parliament provides otherwise.
Consider the following statements:
1. Article 343 provides that the form of numerals for the official purposes of the Union shall be the international form of Indian numerals.
2. Article 344 provides for a committee of 30 members of Parliament, 20 from the Lok Sabha and 10 from the Rajya Sabha.
3. Article 348 makes Hindi the language of proceedings in every High Court.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
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Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is correct: Article 343(1) prescribes the international form of Indian numerals. Statement 2 is correct: Article 344(4) sets up a 30-member committee, 20 from the Lok Sabha and 10 from the Rajya Sabha. Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 348 keeps English for Supreme Court and High Court proceedings until Parliament provides otherwise; a Governor may, with the President's consent, authorise Hindi or a State language in High Court proceedings, but judgments stay in English.
Consider the following statements about the Eighth Schedule:
1. It contained 14 languages when the Constitution came into force.
2. Sindhi was added by the 21st Amendment.
3. Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were added by the 92nd Amendment.
4. It currently lists 22 languages.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
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Answer: (c) Only three. Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect: Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were added by the 71st Amendment (1992); the 92nd Amendment (2003) added Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santali.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: English continues to be used for official purposes of the Union even after 26 January 1965.
Statement-II: Article 343(3) allows Parliament to provide by law for the use of English after the first 15 years.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
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Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. English continues because Parliament used the power in Article 343(3) to pass the Official Languages Act, 1963, whose key section took effect on 26 January 1965. So Statement-II explains Statement-I.
Consider the following statements:
1. The first Official Language Commission under Article 344 was chaired by B.G. Kher.
2. The Official Languages Act was amended in 1967 so that English could not be ended until every State that had not adopted Hindi passed a resolution to that effect.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
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Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Statement 1 is correct: B.G. Kher was appointed on 7 June 1955 and the Commission reported on 31 July 1956. Statement 2 is correct: the 1967 amendment tied the end of English to resolutions by the legislatures of all States that had not adopted Hindi.
The 'Munshi-Ayyangar formula', adopted by the Constituent Assembly in 1949, is associated with which one of the following?
- Distribution of tax revenue between the Union and the States
- The official language of the Union
- Reorganisation of States on linguistic lines
- Reservation of seats in legislatures
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Answer: (b) The official language of the Union. The formula, named after K.M. Munshi and N. Gopalaswami Ayyangar, settled the language provisions now in Part XVII (Articles 343 to 351). Linguistic reorganisation of States came later and is not part of it; tax sharing and reservation are unrelated.
Op-ed: After the SIR, use Aadhaar to keep voter rolls clean
Consider the following statements:
1. Under the Aadhaar Act, 2016, an Aadhaar number is proof of citizenship.
2. Under the Election Laws (Amendment) Act, 2021, a person cannot be denied inclusion in the electoral roll for being unable to furnish an Aadhaar number for sufficient cause.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
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Answer: (b) 2 only. Statement 1 is incorrect: Section 9 of the Aadhaar Act says an Aadhaar number is not proof of citizenship or domicile. Statement 2 is correct: the 2021 amendment lets registration officers seek Aadhaar for identity but bars denial of inclusion or deletion for inability to furnish it for sufficient cause.
Consider the following statements:
1. Section 21(3) of the Representation of the People Act, 1950 enables the Election Commission to direct a special revision of electoral rolls.
2. The Constitution (61st Amendment) Act, 1988 lowered the voting age from 21 to 18.
3. Article 326 allows persons who are not citizens of India but are ordinarily resident to vote in Lok Sabha elections.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
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Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 326 gives the vote only to citizens of India aged 18 or more who are not disqualified.
Consider the following statements about the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls:
1. Phase I covered only Bihar.
2. Phase II covered nine States and three Union Territories.
3. Phase III was announced on 14 May 2026.
4. The Supreme Court struck down the SIR in May 2026.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
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Answer: (c) Only three. Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Statement 4 is incorrect: on 27 May 2026 the Supreme Court upheld the SIR as consistent with the Representation of the People Act and within the Election Commission's mandate.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Aadhaar authentication alone cannot establish that a person is entitled to be registered as a voter.
Statement-II: Section 9 of the Aadhaar Act, 2016 provides that an Aadhaar number is not proof of citizenship or domicile.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. Under Article 326 only citizens may vote; since Section 9 denies Aadhaar the status of proof of citizenship, Aadhaar alone cannot establish entitlement. Statement-II explains Statement-I.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Aadhaar Bill, 2016 was introduced in the Lok Sabha as a Money Bill.
2. UIDAI introduced face authentication as an additional mode of verification in 2018.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
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Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. Statement 1 is correct: the Bill was introduced as a Money Bill on 3 March 2016 and passed by the Lok Sabha on 11 March 2016. Statement 2 is correct: UIDAI introduced face authentication in 2018.
The National Electoral Roll Purification and Authentication Programme (NERPAP), launched in 2015, sought to
- prepare a National Register of Citizens
- digitise land records for voter address verification
- issue voter identity cards to overseas electors
- link electoral rolls with Aadhaar numbers to remove duplicate and erroneous entries
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Answer: (d) link electoral rolls with Aadhaar numbers to remove duplicate and erroneous entries. NERPAP began on 3 March 2015 to link voter cards with Aadhaar numbers. It was stopped after a Supreme Court order, following reports that linkage in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana removed about 30 lakh voters.
After a 99.97% haircut order, IBBI proposes safeguards in personal guarantor insolvency
With reference to the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, consider the following statements:
1. The insolvency resolution process for personal guarantors to corporate debtors is provided in Part III of the Code.
2. Approval of a resolution plan for a corporate debtor automatically discharges its personal guarantors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
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Answer: (a) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct: the process for personal guarantors is in Chapter III of Part III. Statement 2 is incorrect: in Lalit Kumar Jain v. Union of India (2021), the Supreme Court held that approval of a resolution plan does not by itself discharge a personal guarantor.
Consider the following proposals in the IBBI's discussion paper on personal guarantors to corporate debtors:
1. Related parties of the guarantor to have a nil voting share on the repayment plan.
2. Mandatory appointment of a registered valuer to determine the fair value and realisable value of the guarantor's assets.
3. Recording of the creditors' deliberations and reasons in the minutes.
4. Transfer of all personal guarantor cases from the NCLT to Debt Recovery Tribunals.
How many of the above are among the paper's proposals?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
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Answer: (c) Only three. Proposals 1, 2 and 3 are in the paper, along with a duty on the resolution professional to examine avoidance transactions. Item 4 is not: the paper does not propose moving these cases away from the NCLT.
Consider the following statements about the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016:
1. Section 43 deals with preferential transactions.
2. Section 45 deals with undervalued transactions.
3. Section 50 deals with fraudulent trading.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
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Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect: Section 50 deals with extortionate credit transactions; fraudulent trading is Section 66.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Lenders can pursue insolvency against a promoter who gave a personal guarantee even after a resolution plan for the company has been approved.
Statement-II: The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India was established on 1 October 2016.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I. Statement-I is correct: in Lalit Kumar Jain v. Union of India (2021), the Supreme Court held that approval of a resolution plan does not by itself discharge a personal guarantor. Statement-II is correct, but the date of the IBBI's establishment does not explain the guarantor's continuing liability.
Consider the following statements:
1. The IBBI regulates insolvency professionals and information utilities.
2. The IBBI is the adjudicating authority that approves resolution plans of companies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
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Answer: (a) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect: the adjudicating authority for companies (and their personal guarantors) is the National Company Law Tribunal; the IBBI is the regulator that frames regulations.
In insolvency proceedings, the term 'haircut' refers to
- the fee paid to the resolution professional
- the time cut from the resolution timeline by the tribunal
- the share of the debtor's assets sold in liquidation
- the share of admitted claims that creditors give up under a plan
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Answer: (d) the share of admitted claims that creditors give up under a plan. A haircut is the loss creditors accept: the gap between admitted claims and what they recover. In the Subhash Chandra plan, ₹6.5 crore against about ₹22,006.57 crore of claims is a 99.97% haircut.
India and Vietnam agree to co-produce Indian defence equipment at 19th Joint Commission
Consider the following pairs:
(Year : Level of India-Vietnam relationship)
1. 2007 : Strategic Partnership
2. 2016 : Comprehensive Strategic Partnership
3. 2026 : Enhanced Comprehensive Strategic Partnership
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
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Answer: (c) All three. All three are correct. Ties became a Strategic Partnership in 2007 during Vietnamese PM Nguyen Tan Dung's visit, a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership in September 2016 during PM Modi's visit, and an Enhanced Comprehensive Strategic Partnership in May 2026 during To Lam's state visit to India.
Consider the following statements:
1. India established diplomatic relations with North Vietnam in 1972.
2. India's Look East Policy was initiated in 1991.
3. The Prime Minister first outlined SAGAR in an address in Sri Lanka in 2015.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
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Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is correct (7 January 1972). Statement 2 is correct: Look East began in 1991 under P.V. Narasimha Rao. Statement 3 is incorrect: SAGAR was first outlined in Port Louis, Mauritius, on 12 March 2015.
Consider the following statements about INS Kirpan:
1. It is a Khukri-class corvette.
2. It was commissioned into the Indian Navy in 1991.
3. It was handed over to the Vietnam People's Navy in 2023.
4. It was built in Russia.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (c) Only three. Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct: a Khukri-class corvette commissioned on 12 January 1991 and handed over on 22 July 2023. Statement 4 is incorrect: it is described as indigenously built.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: India and Vietnam will observe 2027 as the Year of India-Vietnam Friendship.
Statement-II: India established diplomatic relations with North Vietnam in 1972.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. The Year of Friendship marks 55 years of diplomatic relations, counted from 1972, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.
Consider the following statements about the 19th India-Vietnam Joint Commission:
1. It was co-chaired by the foreign ministers of the two countries.
2. It was held in Hanoi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
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Answer: (a) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct: S. Jaishankar and Le Hoai Trung co-chaired it. Statement 2 is incorrect: it was held in New Delhi.
'MAHASAGAR', sometimes seen in the news, stands for
- Maritime Alliance for Harmony and Security Across Global Asian Regions
- Multilateral Arrangement for Humanitarian Assistance and Security in the Asian Gulf Region
- Maritime Heritage and Shipbuilding Advancement for Growth and Resilience
- Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions
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Answer: (d) Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions. MAHASAGAR is Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions, India's maritime vision building on SAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the Region).
RRI scientists show a well-timed single operation can delay quantum decoherence
With reference to quantum technology, consider the following statements:
1. Decoherence is the loss of the quantum properties of a system due to its interaction with the environment.
2. 'Entanglement sudden death' refers to the slow, gradual decay of entanglement over a very long time.
3. The National Quantum Mission targets intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50 to 1,000 physical qubits in eight years.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect: entanglement sudden death is the abrupt vanishing of entanglement in a finite time, before normal decay would remove it. Statement 3 is correct: the Mission, approved on 19 April 2023, targets 50 to 1,000 physical qubits in eight years.
Consider the following statements about the National Quantum Mission:
1. It was approved by the Union Cabinet in April 2023.
2. Its outlay is ₹6,003.65 crore.
3. It targets inter-city quantum key distribution over 500 km.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct: approved on 19 April 2023 with ₹6,003.65 crore for 2023-24 to 2030-31. Statement 3 is incorrect: the target is inter-city quantum key distribution over 2,000 km.
Consider the following statements about the Raman Research Institute:
1. It was founded by C.V. Raman.
2. It is located in Bengaluru.
3. It receives funds from the Department of Science and Technology.
4. It was founded in 1972.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (c) Only three. Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Statement 4 is incorrect: RRI was founded in 1948; 1972 is when it became an autonomous institute funded by the Department of Science and Technology.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Quantum computers are difficult to scale up because quantum states are fragile.
Statement-II: Interaction of a quantum system with its environment causes decoherence.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Both are correct. The fragility of quantum states comes from decoherence caused by contact with the environment, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.
Consider the following statements:
1. Entangled particles behave as a single system even when they are far apart.
2. A qubit in superposition is in only one definite state at a time before it is measured.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct: entangled particles behave as one system, and measuring one reveals information about the other regardless of distance. Statement 2 is incorrect: superposition means the qubit is in a combination of states until measurement.
The Raman Research Institute study published in Physical Review A used which one of the following to delay decoherence?
- Cooling qubits close to absolute zero
- Repeated error-correction cycles during computation
- Shielding qubits with superconducting materials
- The timing of a single flip operation
Show answer
Answer: (d) The timing of a single flip operation. The QuIC team's 'single-shot' technique applies one flip operation; depending on its timing, it delays decoherence and can avoid entanglement sudden death. It differs from methods that need repeated corrective interventions.